Managerial Accounting4th Editionby James Jiambalvo Answered A++

1. (TCO 1) A difference between actual costs and planned costs (Points: 4) should be investigated if the amount is exceptional. indicates that the planned cost was poorly estimated. indicates that the manager is doing a poor job. should be ignored unless it involves the cost of ingredients.

2. (TCO 1) A company has a cost that is $2.00 per unit at a volume of 12,000 units and $2.00 per unit at a volume of 16,000 units. What type of cost is this? (Points: 4) Fixed Variable Sunk Incremental

3. (TCO 2) Ice Box Company manufactures refrigerators. Which of the following items is most likely to be an indirect material cost for Ice Box Company? (Points: 4) Factory supervisor’s salary Lubricant for refrigerator door hinges Glass shelves for the refrigerators Refrigerator motors

4. (TCO 2) A form used to accumulate the cost of producing an item is called a(n) (Points: 4) job-cost sheet material requisition balance sheet invoice

5. (TCO 3) Why is it necessary to compute equivalent units separately for materials and conversion costs? (Points: 4) Mistakes are made in the accounting for these costs Materials and conversion enter the production process at different rates Conversion costs are more difficult to estimate None of the above reasons are true 0

6. (TCO 3) In the assembly department, all the direct materials are added at the beginning of the processing. Beginning Work in Process inventory consists of 2,000 units with a direct materials cost of $31,860. During the period, 15,000 units are started and direct materials costing $250,000 are charged to the department. If there are 1,000 units in ending inventory, what is the cost per equivalent unit? (Points: 4) $15.93 $15.63 $14.83 $16.58

7. (TCO 4) Regression analysis (Points: 4) uses all the available data points to estimate a cost equation can be performed by many spreadsheet programs provides an equation that can be used to estimate total costs at different levels all of the above

8. (TCO 4) Beaudreaux Motors is operating at its break-even point of 16,000 units. Which of the following statements is not true? (Points: 4) The amount of the company’s total costs equals the amount of its revenues. The company’s fixed costs equal its variable costs. The company’s profit equals zero. Assuming no other changes, if the company sold more units, it would earn a profit.

9. (TCO 5) Which of the following is treated as a product cost in full costing? (Points: 4) Sales commissions Administrative salaries Factory supervisor Security at corporate headquarters

10. (TCO 5) When the number of units sold is equal to the number of units produced, net income using full costing will be (Points: 4) greater than net income under variable costing equal to net income using variable costing less than income using variable costing none of the above

1. (TCO 6) A major problem with cost-plus contracts is that they (Points: 4) are not acceptable under GAAP. cause the supplier to take significant financial risks. require the supplier to use variable costing. create an incentive to allocate as much cost as possible to the goods produced under the cost-plus contract.

12. (TCO 6) Which of the following steps is not involved in the ABC approach? (Points: 4) Identify activities which cause costs to be incurred. Allocate costs to products based on activity usage. Group costs of activities into cost pools. Improve processes based on benchmarking

13. (TCO 7) Which of the following is not a term used to describe the additional costs incurred as a result of selecting one decision over another? (Points: 4) Differential costs Sunk costs Relevant costs Incremental costs

1. (TCO 7) Common costs (Points: 4) are fixed costs that are not directly traceable to an individual product line. normally not avoidable. Both A and B are true. Neither A nor B is true.

2. (TCO 8) Activity based pricing seeks to (Points: 4) customers with the costs they are creating. make greater profits by charging all customers more. maintain all customers in the customer base. all of the above.

3. (TCO 8) Which of the following should be true in order for a company to accept a special order? (Points: 4) Variable costs are less than fixed costs Incremental revenues exceed incremental costs Opportunity costs are zero The order is for a current customer

4. (TCO 9) Present value techniques (Points: 4) ignore cash flows that will occur more than ten years in the future. are a way of converting future dollars into equivalent current dollars.


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The SEC relies on the AICPA and FASB to regulate the accounting profession and develop and enforce accounting standards.

1. The SEC relies on the AICPA and FASB to regulate the accounting profession and develop and enforce accounting standards.

2. Currently, both U.S. GAAP and the International Financial Reporting Standards are acceptable for international use.

3. An effective capital allocation process
a. promotes productivity.
b. encourages innovation.
c. provides an efficient market for buying and selling securities.
d. all of these.

4. Members of the Financial Accounting Standards Board are
a. employed by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA).
b. part-time employees.
c. required to hold a CPA certificate.
d. independent of any other organization.

5. Financial accounting standard-setting in the United States
a. can be described as a social process which reflects political actions of various interested user groups as well as a product of research and logic.
b. is based solely on research and empirical findings.
c. is a legalistic process based on rules promulgated by governmental agencies.
d. is democratic in the sense that a majority of accountants must agree with a standard before it becomes enforceable.

6. The idea of consistency does not mean that companies cannot switch from one accounting method to another.

7. Revenues are realizable when assets received or held are readily convertible into cash or claims to cash.

8. Companies consider only quantitative factors in determining whether an item is material.

9. In the conceptual framework for financial reporting, what provides "the why"--the goals and purposes of accounting?
a. Measurement and recognition concepts such as assumptions, principles, and constraints
b. Qualitative characteristics of accounting information
c. Elements of financial statements
d. Objectives of financial reporting





10. Which of the following is an implication of the going concern assumption?
a. The historical cost principle is credible.
b. Depreciation and amortization policies are justifiable and appropriate.
c. The current-noncurrent classification of assets and liabilities is justifiable and signify-cant.
d. All of these.

11. Under current GAAP, inflation is ignored in accounting due to the
a. economic entity assumption.
b. going concern assumption.
c. monetary unit assumption.
d. periodicity assumption.

12. The allowance for doubtful accounts, which appears as a deduction from accounts receivable on a balance sheet and which is based on an estimate of bad debts, is an application of the
a. consistency characteristic.
b. matching principle.
c. materiality constraint.
d. revenue recognition principle.

13. The book value of any depreciable asset is the difference between its cost and its salvage value.

14. Why are certain costs of doing business capitalized when incurred and then depreciated or amortized over subsequent accounting cycles?
a. To reduce the federal income tax liability
b. To aid management in cash-flow analysis
c. To match the costs of production with revenues as earned
d. To adhere to the accounting constraint of conservatism


15. Pappy Corporation received cash of $13,500 on September 1, 2007 for one year's rent in advance and recorded the transaction with a credit to Unearned Rent. The December 31, 2007 adjusting entry is
a. debit Rent Revenue and credit Unearned Rent, $4,500.
b. debit Rent Revenue and credit Unearned Rent, $9,000.
c. debit Unearned Rent and credit Rent Revenue, $4,500.
d. debit Cash and credit Unearned Rent, $9,000.

16. Jim Yount, M.D., keeps his accounting records on the cash basis. During 2007, Dr. Yount collected $360,000 from his patients. At December 31, 2006, Dr. Yount had accounts receivable of $50,000. At December 31, 2007, Dr. Yount had accounts receivable of $70,000 and unearned revenue of $10,000. On the accrual basis, how much was Dr. Yount's patient service revenue for 2007?
a. $310,000.
b. $370,000.
c. $380,000.
d. $390,000.


17. On September 1, 2006, Lowe Co. issued a note payable to National Bank in the amount of $600,000, bearing interest at 12%, and payable in three equal annual principal payments of $200,000. On this date, the bank's prime rate was 11%. The first payment for interest and principal was made on September 1, 2007. At December 31, 2007, Lowe should record accrued interest payable of
a. $24,000.
b. $22,000.
c. $16,000.
d. $14,667.

18. Colaw Co. pays all salaried employees on a biweekly basis. Overtime pay, however, is paid in the next biweekly period. Colaw accrues salaries expense only at its December 31 year end. Data relating to salaries earned in December 2007 are as follows:
Last payroll was paid on 12/26/07, for the 2-week period ended 12/26/07.
Overtime pay earned in the 2-week period ended 12/26/07 was $10,000.
Remaining work days in 2007 were December 29, 30, 31, on which days there was no overtime.
The recurring biweekly salaries total $180,000.
Assuming a five-day work week, Colaw should record a liability at December 31, 2007 for accrued salaries of
a. $54,000.
b. $64,000.
c. $108,000.
d. $118,000.

Acct Pronouncements: Match the description to the pronouncement

1________Staff Positions

2________Interpretations (of the financial accounting standards Board)

3________ Statement of financial acct standards

4________EITE statments

5________Opinions

6________Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts

a. Offical Pronouncement of the APB

b. Sethforth fundamental objecftives and concepts that will be used in developing future standards.

c. Primary document of the FASB tht establishes GAAP

d. Provides aditional guidance on implementing or applying FASB standared or Interpretations

e. Provides guidance on how to account for new and unusual financial transactions tht have the potential for creating deversity in financial reporting practices.

f. Represent extensions of modifications of existing standards.

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create a class called Vehicle that contains fields for the vehicle's maximum speed and number of wheels. provide both a default constructor

1. create a class called Vehicle that contains fields for the vehicle's maximum speed and number of wheels. provide both a default constructor and

2 argument constructor. provide accessor (get) and mutator (set) methods for the fields. (Solution: vehicle.java) 2. create a subclass of Vehicle called Bicycle that contains a field for the number of gears on the bike. all bikes should have 2 wheels. (Solution: Bicycle.java)

3. add a 'toString ()' method to both classes. Have Bicycle's toString() use Vehicle's toString().

4. write an application that creates a Vehicle with 3 wheels and a top speed of 45 mph (like an ATV) and a Bicycle with 10 gears and a top speed of 30 mph. display both objects. (Solutions:Vehicle.java, Bicycle.java, VehicleTest.java)

5. declare an arry of 3 Vehicles. Make the first two elements Bicycle objects: a 10-speed and a 3-speed. Make the third element just a Vehicle object.

6. Write a loop that runs through the arry, printing each object. Which toString() method is called each time? (Solution: VehicleArray.java)


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Research a failure that occurred at a large organization such as Tyco, Chrysler/Daimler-Benz, Daewoo, WorldCom, or Enron

Research a failure that occurred at a large organization such as Tyco, Chrysler/Daimler-Benz, Daewoo, WorldCom, or Enron. In an APA formatted paper that is no longer than 1,050 words, describe how specific organizational behavior theories could have predicted or can explain the failure of the company. Compare and contrast the contributions of leadership, management, and organizational structures to the organizational failure.

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Kelly pitney began her consulting business, Kelly Consulting, on April 1, 2010. The accounting cylcle for Kelly Consulting for April

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Kelly pitney began her consulting business, Kelly Consulting, on April 1, 2010. The accounting cylcle for Kelly Consulting for April , including financial statements was illistrated on page 157-168. During May, kelly consulting entered the following transactions:

May 3. Received cash from clients as an advance payment for services to be provided and recorded it as unearned fees, $2,500.

5. Received cash from clients on account, $1,750.

9. Paid cash for a newspaper advertisement, $300.

13. Paid office station company for part of the debt incurred on april 5, $400.

15. Recorded services provided on account for the period May 1-15, $6,100.

16. paid part-time receptionist for two weeks' salary including the amount owed on April 30, $750.

17. Recorded cash from cash clients for fees earned during the period May 1-16, $8,200.

20. Purchased supplies on account, $400

21. Recorded services provided on account for the period May 16-20, $3,900.

25. Recorded cash from cash clients for fees earned for the period May 17-23, $5,100.

27. Recieved cash from clients on account, $9,500.

28. Paid part-time receptionist for two weeks salary, $750.

30. Paid telephone bill for May, $120.

31. Paid electricity bill for May $290.

31. Recorded cash from cash clients for fees earned for the period May 26-31, $3,875.

31. Recorded services provided on account for the remainder of May, $3,200.

31. Kelly withdrew $8,000 for personal use.

Pg. 158 Chart of Accounts:

April 1. The following assets were recieved from Kelly Pitney: Cash, $13,100; Accounts receivable, $3,000; Supplies, $1,400; and office equipment, $12,500. there were no liabilities recieved.

1. Paid three months rent on a lease rental contract, $4,800.

2. Paid the premiums on property and casualty insurance policies, $1,800.

4. Recieved cash from clients as an advance payment for services to be provided and recorded it as unearned fees, $5,000.

5. Purchased additional office equipment on account from Office Station Co., $2,000.

6. Recieved cash from clients on account, $1,800.

10. Paid cash for a newspaper advertisement, $120.

12. paid Office Station Co. for part of the debt incurred on April 5, $1,200.

12. Recorded services provided on account for the period April 1-12, $4,200.

14. Paid part-time receptionist for two weeks' salary, $750.

17. Recorded cash from cash clients for fees earned during the period April 1-16, $6,250.

18. Paid cash for supplies, $800.

20. Recorded services provided on account for the period April 13-20, $2,100.

24. Recorded cash from cash clients for fees earned for the period April 17-24, $3,850.

26. Recieved cash from clients on account, $5,600.

27. Paid part-time receptionist for two weeks' salary, $750.

29. Paid telephone bill for April, $130.

30. paid electricity bill for April, $200.

30. Recorded cash from clients for fees earned for the period April 25-30, $3,050.

30. Recorded services provided on account for the remainder of April, $1,500.

30. kelly withdrew $6,000 for personal use.

Pg. 166 Post-closing trial balance

Debit Credit

cash................................22,100

Accounts receivable.......3,400

Supplies...........................1,350

Prepaid rent......................3,200

Prepaid insurance.............1,500

office equipment...............14,500

Accumualted depreciation.. 330

Accounts payable.............. 800

Salaries Payable.............. 120

Unearned Fees................ 2,500

kelly pitney, Capital.......... 42,300

46,050 46,050

Instructions:

1. The chart of accounts for Kelly Consulting is shown on page 158, and the post-closing trail balance as of April 30, 2010 is shown on page 166. For each account in the post-closing trial balance, enter the balance in the appropriate balance column of a four column account. Date the balances May 1, 2010, and place a check mark in the posting referece column. Journalize each of the May transactions in a two column journal using Kelly Consulting's chart of accounts. (do not insert the account numbers in the journal at this time.)

2. Post the journal to a ledger of four-column accounts.

3. Prepare an unadjusted trail balance

4. At the end of May, the following adjustment data were assembled. Analyze and use these data to complete parts 5 and 6.

a. Insurance expired during May is $300.

b. Supplies on hand on May 31 are $600.

c. Depreciation of office equipment for May is $330.

d. Accrued receptionist salary on May 31 is $240.

e. Rent expired during May is $1,600.

f. Unearned fees on May 31 are $2,000

5. Enter the unadjusted trial balance on an end-of-period spreadsheet (worksheet) and complete the spreadsheet.

6. Journalize and post the adjusting entries.

7.Prepare an adjusted trial balance.

8. Prepare an income statement, a statement of owner's equity, and a balance sheet.

9. Prepare and post the closing entries. (Income summary is account #33 in the chart of accounts.) Indicate closed accounts by inserting a line in both the Balance columns opposite the closing entry.

10. Prepare a post-closing trial balance

Book Used:

Elementary Accounting: Custom for badm 101

by Carl S. Warren/James M. Reeve/ Jonathan E. Duchac.


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Geography 101 multiple question quiz


Question 1 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) One of the worlds’ most heavily populated agricultural areas is known as: A. Xizang B. Chang-Yangzi Basin C. Xinjiang D. Shazam E. North China Plain --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 2 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The better watered volcanic islands where the economy is based upon agriculture are known as: A. high islands B. low islands C. Melanesia islands D. Micronesia islands E. Polynesia islands
Question 3 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The ___________ Revolution of the 1960s introduced “miracle” varieties of wheat and rice that significantly increased the productivity of these crops. A. Communist B. Green C. Agricultural D. Malthusian E. Gandhian
Question 4 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Bangladesh was formerly known as: A. East Pakistan B. West Pakistan C. Ceylon D. Nepal E. Burma
Question 5 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The caste system is most associated with which of the following religious group? A. Rastafarian B. Muslim C. Buddhist D. Hindu E. Christian
Question 6 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The people of New Guinea are: A. mostly Chinese B. Hindus C. Indonesian in their ancestry D. of Portuguese descent E. Papuans
Question 7 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The island of New Guinea is included in the region known as: A. Melanesia B. Micronesia C. Polynesia D. Fiji E. Indonesia
Question 8 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The city located closest to the Ganges Delta is: A. Calcutta (Kolkata) B. New Delhi C. Madras (Chennai) D. Islamabad E. Colombo
Question 9 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following oil producers does not border the Persian Gulf? A. Libya B. Kuwait C. Iran D. Saudi Arabia E. Oman
Question 10 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The main river serving the hinterland of Shanghai is the: A. Xi (West)/Pearl River B. Huang He (Yellow River) C. Chang-Yangzi River D. Irawaddy River E. Songhua
Question 11 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The partitioning of Hindu India from Muslim Pakistan occurred in: A. ca. 460 B.C. B. 1857 C. 1947 D. 1971 E. the two areas have never been partitioned
Question 12 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) . The Gobi is associated with which region? A. North China B. Northeast China C. Inner Mongolia D. Xinjiang E. Xizang
Question 13 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following is false about New Caledonia? A. It has significant nickel resources. B. It was under British rule. C. It is inhabited by only about 240,000 persons. D. It consists of about 80 islands. E. About 37% of the population is of French origin.
Question 14 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following cities suffered severely in the devastating 1991 cyclone that came ashore north of the Bay of Bengal? A. New Delhi B. Bombay (Mumbai) C. Dhaka D. Karachi E. Beijing
Question 15 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Pacific region called ___________ takes its name from the word for many, and is contained within a huge triangle whose corners are New Zealand, Easter Island, and the Hawaiian Islands. A. Polynesia B. Amnesia C. Micronesia D. Melanesia E. Oceania
Question 16 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) . The Grand Canal connects: A. the Xi (West)/Pearl River and the Chang-Yangzi River B. the Chang-Yangzi River and the core of Northern China C. the Liao and the Amur D. the Indus and the Ganges E. the Liao and the Ob
Question 17 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following statements is false? A. The first Temple of the Jews was destroyed by the Babylonians in 586 B.C. B. The second Temple of the Jews was destroyed by the Romans in 70 A.D. C. Christianity began as a messianic religion under the Romans D. The United Nations gave Jerusalem to the Israelis under the 1947 partition resolution E. The Palestinians and the Israelis both desire Jerusalem as their capital.
Question 18 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Your textbook indicates that a newly developing regional disparity in India is between: A. urban and rural areas B. east and west C. north and south D. coastal and interior E. none of the above
Question 19 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Centrifugal forces: A. tend to pull a state together, unifying it and increasing its cohesion b. determine the effectiveness with which the boundary system functions to control the population C. affect the binding function of the capital city D. have the effect of dividing a state, promoting disunity and internal fragmentation E. pull a state from representative to authoritarian forms of government
Question 20 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Egypt’s peasant farmers are known as: A. Shatt-al-Arabs B. fellaheen C. Shi’ites D. mestizos E. Bedouins
Question 21 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following is located in Micronesia? A. Hawaiian Islands B. Marshall Islands C. New Caledonia D. Solomon Islands E. Papua New Guinea
Question 22 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The majority population in the north of Kazakhstan is: A. Kazakhstan B. Russian C. Uzbek D. Armenian E. Ukrainian
Question 23 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The largest oil reserves in the Middle East are in: A. Israel B. Libya C. Iraq D. Saudi Arabia E. Yemen
Question 24 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The emerging economic region of China is: A. Shandong B. Shenzhen C. the Pacific Rim D. Hainan Island E. Hong Kong (Xianggang)
Question 25 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The priestly caste in India is known as the: A. Hindus B. Brahmans C. Harijans D. Sikhs E. none of the above
Question 26 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) This country is the smallest in North Africa, but has the highest GNP per capita in North Africa. A. Chad B. Algeria C. Tunisia D. Morocco E. Libya
Question 27 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The island off the south coast of Australia is known as: A. Tasmania B. Canberra C. Sydney D. New Guinea E. Christmas Island
Question 28 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which association is incorrect? A. Myanmar, Irrawaddy B. Thailand, Chao Phraya C. Liao, Laos D. Mekong, southern Vietnam E. Red, northern Vietnam
Question 29 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Empire that ruled over much of Southwest Asia prior to World War I was: A. Ottoman B. Persian C. Byzantine D. Crusader Kingdom E. Maghreb Empire
Question 30 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) . Which of the following countries is not on the Arabian Peninsula? A. Libya B. Kuwait C. Oman D. Qatar E. Bahrain
Question 31 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Mao Zedong’s proclamation creating the communist People’s Republic of China was announced in: A. 1911 B. 1925 C. 1949 D. 1976 E. 1983
Question 32 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The most important ethnic group in Afghanistan is the: A. Pushtuns (Pathans) B. Turkmen C. Azeris D. Kurds E. Baluchis
Question 33 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The largest country in Melanesia by area is: A. Solomon Islands Island B. Fiji C. Papua New Guinea D. Hawai’i E. Easter
Question 34 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) In India, a leading centrifugal force is: A. the caste system B. cultural strength of Hinduism C. the personality of Nehru D. the Sikh population E. none of the above
Question 35 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which state is located in southern India? A. Assam B. Tamil Nadu C. Punjab D. Kashmir E. Tibet
Question 36 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Much of India’s coal supply is found in the: A. Assam region B. Chota-Nagpur Plateau C. Western Ghats D. Kathiawar Peninsula E. Kashmir province
Question 37 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The small group of islands 400 miles south of India are the: A. Sri Lanka B. Punjabs C. Maldives D. Dravidians E. Colombos
Question 38 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) In Iraq, the Shi’ite population is concentrated in: A. the north B. the capital C. the border area near Jordan D. the south E. the Kurdish area
Question 39 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following colonial associations is incorrect? A. Spain, Philippines B. France, Sumatera (Sumatra) C. Dutch, Indonesia D. France, Vietnam E. Timor, Portugal
Question 40 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following statements about Nepal is false? A. Deforestation is a problem. B. Agriculture is a true success story. C. The Himalayas are the principal physical feature. D. About 80% of the population are Hindu. E. Kathmandu is the country's core area.
Question 41 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following statements is false? A. Though the official language of Bangladesh is Bengali, the official language of Pakistan is Urdu. B. While the major natural hazard faced by Bangladesh is flooding, the major natural hazard faced by Pakistan is drought. C. While rice is the major staple grain in Bangladesh, wheat is the major staple grain in Pakistan. D. Bangladesh and Pakistan have significant known mineral resources. E. Bangladesh and Pakistan were once united into a single country.
Question 42 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following regions is often called “Manchuria” by uninformed foreigners? A. Northeast China B. Taiwan C. North China Plain D. Xizang E. Red Basin of Sichuan
Question 43 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which country maintains the largest land claim in Antarctica? A. United States B. Australia C. New Zealand D. Japan E. France
Question 44 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The first true indigenous empire in India was the: A. Aryan B. Indus C. Dravidian D. Buddha E. Mauryan
Question 45 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Xizang: A. is the Chinese name for Tibet B. is Buddhist C. has suffered from the destruction of its culture by the Chinese D. has its capital at Lhasa E. all of the above
Question 46 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Native Australians are known as: A. Maoris B. Cook Islanders C. Aborigines D. Indians E. Guineans
Question 47 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following cities is located in Pakistan’s Sind region? A. Karachi B. Kabul C. Islamabad D. Lahore E. Rawalpindi
Question 48 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The untouchable caste in India is known as the: A. Hindus B. Harijans C. Brahmans D. Sikhs E. none of the above
Question 49 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The rural areas of Australia are known as the: A. backward zone B. outlands C. aboriginal territories D. Northern Territory E. outback
Question 50 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following are not Chinese areas encouraging foreign investment? A. special economic zones B. open coastal areas C. open cities D. forbidden cities E. Shenzhen
Question 51 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The body of water destroyed by Soviet irrigation schemes is the: A. Black Sea B. Aral Sea C. Caspian Sea D. Lake Balkhash E. Sea of Azov
Question 52 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following countries does not share a common border with Pakistan? A. Iran B. China C. Bangladesh D. Afghanistan E. India
Question 53 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The shortest of the three great rivers in China is the: A. Huang He (Yellow River) B. Chiang River C. Xi (West)/Pearl River D. Liao River E. Indus River
Question 54 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) China’s current population is closest to: A. 700 million B. 800 million C. 1.6 billion D. 500 million E. 1.3 billion
Question 55 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Ceuta and Mellila are associated with which country? A. Egypt B. Tunisia C. Persia D. Morocco E. Spanish Sahara
Question 56 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The UAE includes the oil-rich sheikhdom known as: A. Kuwait B. Saudi C. Abu Dhabi D. Bahrain E. Qatar
Question 57 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following republics of Turkestan has a people of Persian origin? A. Kazakhstan B. Uzbekistan C. Turkmenistan D. Tajikistan E. Kyrgyzstan
Question 58 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The city of __________ is located at the confluence of the White and Blue Nile and serves as the capital of __________. A. Khartoum/Sudan B. Addis Ababa/Ethiopia C. Cairo/Egypt D. Kabol/Afghanistan E. Baghdad/Iraq
Question 59 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Between Yemen and Djibouti is the choke point known as: A. Hormuz B. Tiran C. Bab el Mandeb D. Suez E. Gibraltar
Question 60 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Sikh population is concentrated in: A. Punjab B. Assam C. Kerala D. Kashmir E. Seekland
Question 61 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The modern state of Israel was created in: A. 1923 B. 1937 C. 1948 D. 1959 E. 1967
Question 62 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Prior to independence, New Guinea was administered by: A. Australia B. New Zealand C. U.S. D. Indonesia E. Papua
Question 63 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) 8 of the 10 costliest natural disasters in the world have struck which of the following countries? A. India B. Bangladesh C. Pakistan D. Sri Lanka E. Nepal
Question 64 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following is not one of the republics of Turkestan? A. Kazakhstan B. Uzbekistan C. Turkmenistan D. Azerbaijan E. Kyrgyzstan
Question 65 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following is the core area of Pakistan? A. Punjab B. Sind C. Assam D. Islamabad E. Baluchistan
Question 66 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following was not a part of French Indochina? A. Tonkin B. Siam C. Cambodia D. Laos E. Vietnam
Question 67 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The State of Israel: A. was settled by people fleeing the Zionist policies of Nazi Germany B. was created from territory that was formerly administered by the British C. was part of the Ottoman Empire and ceded to the Israelis in 1923 D. was created out of the country of Palestine that previously had no Jewish population E. was founded after World War I
Question 68 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The North China Plain is dominated by the: A. Huang He (Yellow River) B. Himalayas C. Chang-Yangzi River D. Xizang E. Ordos Desert
Question 69 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Kemal Atatürk is most closely identified with the city of: A. Cairo B. Mecca C. Tehran D. Ankara E. Baghdad
Question 70 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Wallace’s Line refers to: A. the point in Australia where earthquakes are particularly severe B. the line separating Australian species from non-Australian species C. the midpoint of the Great Dividing Range D. the point at which Australian waters are divided from New Zealand waters E. the dividing line between the aboriginal and modern Australian territories
Question 71 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following is not located within the Maghreb region? A. the Atlas Mountains B. Casablanca C. the countries that were once called the Barbary states d. the Mecca area of the Arabian Peninsula D. the city of Tunis
Question 72 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The leader who took over in China following Mao was: A. Deng Xiaoping B. Mao’s son C. Chiang Kai-Shek D. Sun Yat-sen E. Zhou Enlai
Question 73 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Iran differs from most of the North African/Southwest Asian realm in that: A. it is non-Islamic B. its population is nearly 100% Arab C. it is dominantly Shi’ite D. it is ruled by a monarchy E. as a nation it is very young
Question 74 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Han Dynasty: A. is the earliest Chinese dynasty about which substantial information is available B. began and ended before 300 B.C., when China already was a well-organized state C. was a pivotal and formative period in Chinese history, when the Chinese sphere of influence was enlarged, land reform occurred, and external trade commenced D. was a period of division and disarray, causing the emergence of two rival capitals, Tianjin and Beijing E. led directly to the takeover of the Manchus
Question 75 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) A boundary is actually marked on the ground during the stage called: A. administration B. allocation (definition) C. delimitation D. demarcation E. antecedence
Question 76 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) _______ held onto eastern Timor well after the Dutch left the East Indies. A. Portugal B. Spain C. U.S. D. British E. Japanese
Question 77 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The dominant centripetal force in India has been the: A. cultural and religious strength of Hinduism B. universality of the English Language C. united opposition to Islam D. national effort against the colonial power E. war on hunger and malnutrition
Question 78 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) About ___ % of Australians live in cities or towns. A. 20 B. 40 C. 85 D. 10 E. 12
Question 79 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The lava covered plateau that extends across most of southern India is known as the: A. Punjab B. Bengla C. Dravidian D. Deccan E. Raj
Question 80 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following is not located in Pakistan? A. Deccan Plateau B. Sind C. Punjab D. Islamabad E. Baluchistan
Question 81 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Hawaiian Islands are included in: A. Melanesia B. Micronesia C. Polynesia D. Fiji E. Indonesia
Question 82 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which region contains Tibet? A. South China B. Inner Mongolia C. Xinjiang D. Xizang E. Northeast China
Question 83 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) A territorial sea is: A. an area of the ocean where all of the rights of a coastal state prevail B. a body of water completely surrounded by a state C. a small body of water that connects to larger bodies of water D. only found in the Southern Ocean E. an area where a state has no rights to exploit minerals
Question 84 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The animals found in Australia who carry their young in pouches are collectively known as: A. Marsupials B. Kangaroos C. Platypuses D. Maoris E. Tasmanians
Question 85 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Hindu population of Sri Lanka is called the: A. Ceylonese B. Sinhalese C. Tamils D. Ghats E. Lankanese
Question 86 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following has not been important in the development of Shenzhen as an SEZ? A. proximity to Hong Kong (Xianggang) B. the socialist economic principles applied by the Chinese government to its development C. port facilities D. investment of overseas Chinese in its development E. U.S. and Japanese investments
Question 87 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following areas of India is located in the Brahmaputra Valley? A. Deccan B. Assam C. Punjab D. Kashmir E. Tibet
Question 88 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The periphery of the Deccan plateau is marked by mountain ranges called: A. Punjabs B. Ghats C. Himalayas D. Karakoram E. Hindu Kush
Question 89 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Two political entities that recently reunited with China are: A. Vietnam and Shandong B. Macau (Macao) and Shenzhen C. Hong Kong (Xianggang) and Shenzhen D. Hong Kong and Xianggang E. Macau (Macao) and Hong Kong (Xianggang)
Question 90 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The power coming through India in the tenth century was: A. Roman B. Greek C. Islam D. Buddhist E. Aryan
Question 91 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Syrians have lost which piece of territory to the Israelis? A. Lebanon B. Bratislava C. Palestine D. Golan E. Kurdistan
Question 92 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following statements about Indian agriculture is false? A. Rice is grown in the east and wheat in the west. B. Wheat is grown in the east and rice in the west. C. The Green Revolution led to significant increases in production. D. Cotton is produced in west-central India. E. All of the above are false.
Question 93 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following statements is false? A. Australia’s total population is modest in size. B. The largest core area of Australia is on the southeastern coast. C. Most Australians live in rural areas. D. Much of Australia is arid or semi-arid. E. The capital of Australia is Canberra.
Question 94 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The country that could control the flow of the Nile River into Egypt is: A. Iraq B. Sudan C. Libya D. Turkey E. none of the above
Question 95 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Huang He (Yellow River): A. drains the Xi (West)/Pearl River Basin B. flows into the South China Sea C. almost encircles one of China’s driest areas, the Ordos Desert D. flows from the Loess Plateau eastward toward the East China Sea south of Shanghai E. originates in the Tarim Basin
Question 96 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The North Africa/Southwest Asia realm contains about __________ % of the world’s oil reserves. A. 10 B. 95 C. 77 D. 30 E. 3
Question 97 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The two major cities on the North China Plain are: A. Beijing and Shanghai B. Beijing and Tianjin C. Shandong and Tibet D. Hainan and Hong Kong (Xianggang) E. Singapore and Shenyang
Question 98 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Powdery wind-blown soil pulverized by glaciers is called: A. ordos B. loess C. cenozoic D. shandong E. huang soil
Question 99 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The irredentist movement in the North West Frontier of Pakistan is based on cultural affiliations with the neighboring country of: A. Iran B. Afghanistan C. Jammu and Kashmir D. Bangladesh E. India
Question 100 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) An area whose control is still disputed by India and Pakistan is: A. Punjab B. Jammu and Kashmir C. Bangladesh D. Bengal E. Goa

Week 7 CheckPoint: Electronic Commerce Response

Week 7 CheckPoint: Electronic Commerce Response

What is the impact of electronic commerce on the entire United States legal system?
Describe the impact of e-business on the global legal environment
What are the similarities and differences between the legal business environments of domestic and international trade?

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Business Com 285 Quiz 45 questions

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1) Tara Houser e-mails a colleague Dan Brothers to suggest that he be the lead writer in preparing a comprehensive business plan for the company. The task will be rather time-consuming. Tara tells Dan that “the president will certainly be impressed with whoever heads up this project”, which is persuasive because
A. Dan can help out his colleague so she does not have to take on this additional responsibility herself.
B. the company will be able to secure additional financing once it has a business plan.
C. the president will be able to use the document to communicate expansion plans to stockholders.
D. Dan will gain key leadership experience that will work in his favor when he applies for his promotion.



2) Susan Rojas is applying for a position in the marketing department of a local corporation. Although Greg Ellis is the director of this department, she has been instructed to send her resume and other documents to Jeff Cohen, manager of the human resources department. Jeff screens all applications before sending those of qualified candidates on to appropriate department heads. Jeff is:
A. an auxiliary audience
B. the primary audience
C. a gatekeeper
D. a watchdog



3) Which of the following is NOT a gatekeeper?
A. An account executive who approves a marketing plan before it is submitted to the client.
B. A program director at the National Science Foundation who screens all grant applications to ensure conformity to the application criteria before forwarding them to the review board.
C. A receptionist for a small business who opens the mail and then date-time stamps each piece before passing it on to its owner.
D. The HR director of a large university who screens all internal applicants for eligibility before sending applications to the interviewers for a specific position.



4) A written message is preferable to an oral one for all of the following EXCEPT
A. discussing many specific details of a law, policy, or procedure.
B. minimizing undesirable emotions.
C. presenting extensive or complex financial data.
D. getting an immediate response.



5) You are a technical writer in a large company who is working on a training manual to help new users learn the company's computer system. Employees will use your manual in training seminars taught by your company's trainers. The manual will also serve as an on-the-job reference later. Both of the system analysts who designed the computer system and the trainers will comment on your draft. The trainers would be classified as what kind of audience for your manual?
A. Gatekeeper
B. Primary
C. Watchdog
D. Secondary



6) Which audience has political, social, or economic power; pays close attention to the transaction between you and the primary audience; and may base future actions on its evaluation of your message?
A. Watchdog audience
B. Gatekeeper
C. Auxiliary audience
D. Secondary audience



7) A written business request is answered positively and promptly on the first try. This is an example of a high level of:
A. image
B. clarity
C. goodwill
D. effectiveness



8) Good writing costs companies money, and those costs increase significantly if the communication is ineffective. Which of the following pairs would NOT be two additional costs to the company if written communication is poor?
A. Postage and legal problems
B. Computers and software
C. Paper and wasted time
D. Lost goodwill and document cycling



9) Strong writing skills help you do all of the following EXCEPT
A. save time.
B. provoke disagreement.
C. make your communication efforts effective.
D. communicate your points clearly.



10) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate practice when analyzing the audience prior to delivering a message?
A. Learn about the cultural and demographic backgrounds of the audience members.
B. Focus on all of the characteristics of the audience, whether or not they pertain to the message.
C. Determine how much the audience already knows about the topic.
D. Consider whether there are subgroups in the audience.



11) Which statement about conventions is NOT correct?
A. Conventions are ways of doing things that other people have not even thought of.
B. Conventions are widely accepted practices that are routinely encountered.
C. Conventions include any unusual occurrences in a business that are outside of the norm.
D. Conventions are useful for a company because they are standards that do not vary with audience, context, or purpose.



12) Which of the following audiences would receive an internal document?
A. The CPA who is auditing your company's books
B. Your best customers
C. The human resources director
D. The job candidate you wish to hire






13) If you are speaking with someone who nods while you are speaking and then brings up points of disagreement when you are finished, it is likely that your listener:
A. was nodding to show that he or she was listening, but was not necessarily agreeing.
B. nods for no reason at all.
C. wants to mislead you.
D. agreed with you until the last point you made in the argument.



14) Your subordinates tell you that a project will not be completed on time because they are behind schedule. Which of the following is the best response?
A. "Could you finish it if you had some more help?"
B. "You should have told me sooner."
C. "What's wrong with you people? Don't you know what a deadline is?"
D. "If it isn't on my desk by Friday, I'll fire every one of you."



15) Which of the following statements does NOT show evidence of active listening in response to a co-worker who says “Dave has to be kidding if he thinks we can finish this project by Friday.”?
A. “Is there anything I could do to help?”
B. “Our next project is going to involve working collaboratively with the marketing department.”
C. “It sounds like your department has been overwhelmed with all you have been asked to do.”
D. “It seems that you need a bit more time to really do a good job on this project.”



16) Business communication practices in the United States place importance on the written word, and this indicates that our culture:
A. is polychronic.
B. is monochronic.
C. has low-context preferences.
D. has high-context preferences.



17) Which is NOT a true statement about diversity?
A. More and more, women, people of color, and Latinos are relegated to low-status and low-paying jobs, to agricultural or domestic work, or to staff rather than management.
B. Companies with high levels of racial and ethnic minorities have the highest profits, the highest market shares, and the highest number of customers.
C. A diverse workforce helps companies adapt their communications and products for diverse segments of the global economy.
D. Minorities introduce new perspectives and catalyze new thinking among others.



18) Which of the following is NOT related to global business?
A. Firms are increasing international management, and managers often find they need international experience if they want top-level jobs.
B. The last two decades have seen a growing emphasis on diversity, with more and more women and people of color joining the U.S. workforce.
C. Many companies depend on vendors or operations in other countries.
D. Exports are essential both to the success of individual businesses and to a country’s economy as a whole.



19) The success of which phase determines how well the group’s decision will be implemented?
A. Formation
B. Coordination
C. Aggregation
D. Formalization



20) Positive roles and actions of individuals that help the group build loyalty, resolve conflicts,and function smoothly include:
A. asking questions and identifying gaps in the group’s knowledge.
B. comparing group processes and products to standards and goals.
C. demonstrating openness and acceptance.
D. taking every opportunity to be the first to speak and insisting on personally responding to everyone else’s comments.



21) Positive roles and actions of individuals that help the group achieve its task goals include:
A. restating major points, pulling ideas together, and summarizing decisions.
B. showing group members that they have been heard and that their ideas are being taken seriously.
C. recognizing the contributions of members.
D. disagreeing with everything that is proposed.






22) Which of the following sentences would be appropriate toward the beginning of a professional business report?
A. “I would like to point out that the drop in sales in May 2007 was due to unusually rainy weather.”
B. “The local college offers many Gen. Ed. courses that employees may take to enhance their communication skills.”
C. “You can’t determine the cause of the problem if you don’t know who’s involved.”
D. “Members of ACE (Association of Creative Enterprises) were invited as speakers at the conference.”



23) Which of the following is NOT a consideration when choosing words to communicate an idea?
A. the audience you are addressing
B. the amount of time you have to prepare the message
C. the words you have already used
D. the context of the situation



24) Which of the following sentences that begin a letter is appropriate for contemporary business communication?
A. “Enclosed please find the application forms you requested.”
B. “Pursuant to you request, we are forwarding you the application forms you requested.”
C. “Here are the application forms you requested.”
D. “Your application forms have been enclosed herewith.”



25) Halfway through the process of drafting a memo, Jacob stops to think about how to word his next paragraph. What part of the writing process does this activity represent?
A. Planning
B. Gathering
C. Revising
D. Editing



26) Lauren has confirmed flight information, printed directions from the Internet, and spoken with the Human Resources Department to clarify specific details. She will include this information in a letter to a job candidate she is inviting for an interview. What part of the writing process does this activity represent?
A. Writing
B. Gathering
C. Revising
D. Editing



27) Ben chooses a pattern of organization before he begins a letter. What part of the writing process does this activity represent?
A. Planning
B. Getting feedback
C. Brainstorming
D. Editing



28) Which of the following would NOT be considered a violation of a convention?
A. A business letter is hand written.
B. A resume is presented in an electronic format.
C. Clipart is included throughout a loan contract.
D. An attorney’s business card is printed in red font on a yellow background.



29) Which of the following would be the BEST place to put your most important visual in a newsletter?
A. In the center of the page to indicate that the image is central to the newsletter.
B. In the bottom left of the page to emphasize material that appears in the top half.
C. Parallel to two or more smaller visuals to create balance.
D. In the top left of the page because the top is a position of emphasis.



30) A business plan is divided into two primary sections. On the page just before each of these sections begins, there is a page with the name of the section in large font. In addition, each primary section includes several sub-sections. These are indicated within the report by centered headings just before each sub-section begins. This is an example of which of Communications Professor Charles Kostelnick’s levels of communication design?
A. Intra
B. Inter
C. Extra
D. Supra






31) Which would NOT be a consideration when choosing a medium for a superior delivering bad news to subordinates?
A. the severity of the message
B. the complexity of the explanation
C. the relationship between the superior and subordinates
D. the superior’s desire not to have to deal with the situation



32) Crystal agreed to serve on a company’s advisory board and now has to contact them to say she cannot attend a scheduled meeting where she was to be one of several key speakers. What should she do?
A. Offer to send a knowledgeable colleague in her place.
B. Resign from the advisory board before the meeting date.
C. Let the company know she cannot not attend and that they will have to make arrangements for another speaker.
D. Ask the company to cancel the meeting.



33) Is "I am sure that you will agree with our decision" appropriate in a letter to a client in which you refuse a request?
A. No, because the client will then feel silly for having made the request
B. No, because you should not assume that you know how the reader feels
C. Yes, as long as you had no choice about the decision you made
D. Yes, because it will prevent psychological reactance



34) Is the subject line "Improving Customer Service" appropriate in a message to superiors?
A. No, because the boss is likely to think that you caused the problem
B. Yes, because it makes it look like you "bought into" the goals of the organization
C. Yes, because it focuses on solving the problem
D. No, because the word "service" makes the subject line seem negative



35) Which of the followings sentences would NOT be considered a buffer at the beginning of a bad-news letter to a new customer who will ultimately be denied a line of credit?
A. “We understand how important it is for a new business like yours to acquire all the supplies and inventory it takes to get up and running.”
B. “Congratulations on opening your new business!”
C. “Thank you for your order. We are glad to have you as a customer.”
D. “Until your credit application has been approved, you will need to prepay for your orders before they ship.”



36) In a bad-news memo to subordinates, you should open with:
A. a request that the employees form teams to find a solution.
B. an alternative.
C. a buffer.
D. a clear statement of the problem.



37) Which of the following should NOT be included in a bad-news memo to your superior?
A. A buffer in the opening paragraph
B. A request for approval for the solution you want to implement
C. The underlying factors that led to this specific problem
D. The advantages and disadvantages of all the options if one is not clearly the best



38) Which of the following is NOT a purpose in a negative message?
A. To reduce or eliminate future correspondence on the same subject
B. To make the reader accept personal responsibility for his or her faults
C. To build a good image of the writer
D. To build a good image of the writer's organization



39) Which is an appropriate way for a subordinate to begin a message to her supervisor letting him know that the company has been fined due to safety violations in their department?
A. “Something horrible has happened!”
B. “We received notice today that we are being fined $1,500 for being out of compliance with safety standards.”
C. “Our department has come so far this past year and there are only a few things left that we need to work on.”
D. “I think we ought to start taking measures to make our department safer.”






40) A presentation designed to entertain and validate the audience is a(n):
A. persuasive presentation
B. informative presentation
C. oral presentation
D. goodwill presentation



41) Which of the following is an informative presentation?
A. Training new employees on how to use computer software
B. Convincing people to contribute to a worthy cause
C. Encouraging the audience in order to promote team spirit
D. Promoting a product to prospective customers



42) You must explain to a group of employees the different pension funds they can now choose. You expect the group to have many questions because many of them will be retiring within ten years and want to maximize their retirement income. You should probably:
A. send them each a written package of material and ask them to call if they have questions.
B. give an oral presentation with lots of visuals.
C. send them a package of self-explanatory written material and cover different material at the presentation.
D. give them written material to look at ahead of time and go over that material as part of your presentation.



43) You are writing a report that recommends renovation projects in several buildings on your campus. The most appropriate organizational pattern would be:
A. pro and con.
B. functional.
C. geographic or spatial.
D. chronological.



44) Which of the following patterns of organization is characterized by a movement from the problem as it affects the organization to a discussion of the parts of the problem and solutions to each of these parts?
A. Particular to general
B. General to particular
C. Eliminating alternatives
D. Problem-solving



45) In a comparison-contrast report, it is best to:
A. focus on alternatives when the superiority of one alternative over another depends largely upon which criteria are most important to the reader.
B. focus on alternatives when one alternative is clearly much better than the others.
C. focus on alternatives when the criteria are easy to separate.
D. focus on criteria when the reader will intuitively grasp the alternative as a whole rather than the sum of its parts.
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At LLD Records, some of the market research of college students

At LLD Records, some of the market research of college students is done during promotions on college campuses, while other market research of college students is done through anonymous mail, phone, internet, and record store questionnaires. In all cases, the company solicits an "intent-to-purchase" score from the student, with being the lowest score ("no intent to purchase") and being the highest score ("full intent to purchase").

The manager finds the following information for intent-to-purchase scores for a soon-to-be-released CD: Group Sample size Sample mean Sample variance On Campus 25 65.2 94.9 By mail 25 65.3 74.3 By phone 25 70.6 103.4 By internet 25 68.2 130.1 In a store 25 63.7 102.9 Suppose that the five populations of scores from which these samples were drawn are approximately normally distributed and have the same mean and the same variance. Answer the following, carrying your intermediate computations to at least three decimal places and rounding your responses to at least one decimal place. 1. Give an estimate of this common population variance based on the variance of the sample means given. 2. Give an estimate of this common population variance by pooling the sample variances given.

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Math 221 Week 4 Lab part 1, 2 and 3

Math 221

Week 4 Lab

Submitted by:

Part 1. Cross-Reference Tables and Probability

1. What is the probability that the cereal would be high calorie? In other words, what is P(high calorie)?

2. What is the probability that the cereal would be high fiber? In other words, what is P(high fiber)?

3. What is the probability that a cereal would both high calorie and high fiber? In other words, what is P(high calorie and high fiber)?

4. What is the probability that a cereal would either high calorie or high fiber? In other words, what is P(high calorie or high fiber)?

5. What is the probability that a cereal would be high calorie, given that it is high fiber? In other words, what is P(high calorie, given high fiber)?

6. What is the probaility that a cereal would be high calorie, given that is is low fiber? In other words, what is P(high calorie, given low fiber)?

7. Regarding Questions 5 and 6, how might you interpret this information as a consumer?

8. Using the simple test of independence (described in the lecture), decide if the events high calorie and high fiber are independent or dependent. Show your work.

9. Discuss how the Excel command "countif" was used in the table above. Why were the ranges (such as f2:f23) used as they were?

Week 4 Lab

Part II Questions

1) Fifty-four percent of men consider themselves basketball fans. You randomly select 10 men and ask each if he considers himself a basketball fan. Find the probability that the number who consider themselves basketball fans is (a) exactly eight, (b) at least eight, and (c) less than eight.

2) Ten percent of adults say oatmeal raisin is their favorite cookie. You randomly select 12 adults and ask each to name his or her favorite cookie. Find the probability that the number who say oatmeal is their favorite cookie is (a) exactly four, (b) at least four, and (c) less than four.

Week 4 Lab

Part 3: Poisson Distribution

1) A major hurricane is a hurricane with wind speeds of 111 miles per hour or greater. During the 20th century, the mean number of major hurricanes to strike the U.S. mainland per year was about 0.7. Find the probability that in a given year a) exactly one major hurricane will strike the U.S. mainland, b) at most one major hurricane will strike the U.S. mainland, and c) more than one major hurricane will strike the U.S. mainland.

2) The mean number of days with 0.01 inch or more precipitation per month for Lewistown, Idaho, is about 8.7. Find the probability that in a given month a) there are exactly 9 days with 0.01 inch or more precipitation, b) there are at most 9 days with 0.01 inch or more precipitation, and c) there are more than 9 days with 0.01 inch or more precipitation.


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Quiz

1) Which level of measurement is required for the median?
A. Nominal

B. Ratio

C. Ordinal

D. Interval



2) Which level of measurement is required for the mode?
A. Nominal

B. Ratio

C. Ordinal

D. Interval



3) The weighted mean is a special case of the:
A. Mean

B. Geometric mean

C. Median

D. Mode



4) Which of the following is not a requirement of a probability distribution?
A. Equally likely probability of a success.

B. The probability of each outcome is between 0 and 1.
C. Sum of the possible outcomes is 1.00.

D. The outcomes are mutually exclusive.



5) Which of the following is not a requirement of a binomial distribution?
A. A constant probability of success.
B. Equally likely outcomes.

C. Only two possible outcomes.

D. A fixed number of trails.



6) In which of the following distributions is the probability of a success usually small?
A. Binomial

B. All distribution

C. Poisson

D. Hypergeometric





7) The difference between the sample mean and the population mean is called the
A. Population mean.

B. Sampling error.

C. Population standard deviation.
D. Standard error of the mean.



8) In a simple random sample
A. Every Kth item is selected to be in the sample.

B. Every item has a chance to be in the sample.

C. Every item has the same chance to be in the sample.
D. All of these



9) Suppose a population consisted of 20 items. How many different samples of n = 3 are possible?
A. 6840

B. 120

C. 1140

D. 20



10) Which of the following statements is not a characteristic of the t distribution?
A. It is a continuous distribution.

B. Like z there is only one t distribution.
C. It has a mean of 0.

D. It is symmetrical.



11) We wish to develop a confidence interval for the population mean. The shape of the population is not known, but we have a sample of 40 observations. We decide to use the 92% level of confidence. The appropriate value of z is:
A. 1.96

B. 1.75

C. 1.65

D. 2.58



12) A point estimate is
A. Always an estimate of the population mean.
B. Always equal to the population value.

C. An estimate of the population parameter.

D. None of these





) Which of the following is a correct statement about a probability?
A. It may range from 0 to 1.

B. It cannot be reported to more than 1 decimal place.
C. It may assume negative values.

D. It may be greater than 1.



14) Which of the following is not a type of probability?
A. Subjective

B. Relative frequency
C. Classical

D. Independent



15) An experiment is a:
A. Collection of events

B. Always greater than 1.

C. The act of taking a measurement or the observation of some activity.
D. Collection of outcomes.




16) A nominal scale variable is
A. Usually the result of counting something.
B. May assume negative values.

C. Cannot have more than two categories.

D. Has a meaningful zero point.



17) The ratio scale of measurement
A. Usually involves ranking.

B. Has a meaningful zero point.

C. Is usually based on counting.

D. Cannot assume negative values.



18) Which of the following statements is true regarding a sample?
A. It is a part of population.

B. It must contain at least five observations.
C. It refers to descriptive statistics

D. All of these are correct




19) Which of the following is a requirement for a two-sample test of proportions.
A. The population standard deviations are equal.
B. Both samples are at least 30.

C. nB and n(1-B) are both greater than 5.

D. Both populations are positively skewed.



20) The alternate hypothesis
A. Is accepted if the null hypothesis is rejected.
B. Tells the value of the sample mean.

C. None of these

D. Will always contain the equal sign.



21) A Type I error is
A. The correct decision

B. A value determined from the test statistic

C. Accepting the null hypothesis when it is false.
D. Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true



22) To conduct a nonparametric test the.
A. Population must follow the normal distribution.

B. The standard deviation must be known.

C. The data must be at least interval scale.

D. It is not necessary to make any assumption about the shape of the population.


23) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the X2
A. Its shape is based on the sample size.

B. It is not negative.

C. It approaches a normal distribution as the degrees of freedom increase.
D. It is positively skewed.



24) In a contingency table
A. The number of rows must be the same as the number of columns.
B. A variable is classified according to two criteria.

C. There must be at least 10 observations in each cell.

D. All of these




25) A dummy variable or indicator variable
A. May assume only a value of 0 or 1.

B. Is another term for the dependent variable.
C. Is equal to Y

D. Is found by (Y - Y).



26) In the ANOVA table the value of k is
A. The number of independent variables.

B. The total number of observations

C. The sum of squares total.

D. The number of degrees of freedom.



27) In a multiple regression equation
A. There is only one dependent variable.

B. The R2 term must be at least .50.

C. All the regression coefficient must be between -1.00 and 1.00.
D. None of these

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Statistical techniques in business and economics. 14 ed chapter 5

3. A survey if 34 students at the wall college of busines showed the following majprs: Accounting 10, finance 5, economics 3, management 6, marketing 10. Suppose you select a student and observe his or her major. A. What is the probability he or she is a management major. B. Which concept of probability did you use to make this estimate?



14. The chair of the board of director says," There is a 50 percent chance this company will earn a profit, a 30 percent chance it will break even, and a 20 percent chance it will lose money next quarter." A. use an addition rule to find the probability the company will not lose money next quarter. B, Use the complement rule to find the probability it will not lose money next quarter.

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29. Each saleperson at Ouchett, Sheets, and Hogan Insurance Agency is reated either below average, average, or above average with respect to sales ability. Each salesperson is also rated with respect to his or her potential for advancement- either fair, good, or excellent. These traits fo the 500 Salepeople where cross-classfiied into the following table. Sales ability below average, average, above average potential for advancement fair good excellent 16 12 22 45 60 45 93 72 135 A. What is the table called? B, What is the probability a salesperson selected at random will have above average sales ability and excellent potential for advancement? C. Construct a tree diagram showing all the probabilities, conditional probabilities, and joint probabilities.



Resources:Lind 2009. Statistical techniques in business and economics.

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Ballat bible review

Ballat Bible review

Since childhood, I have been actively dancing. I learned dancing at the period I started to learn to walk ,haha. In the earlier stages I would just learn dancing while watching television and later on went to dancing classes.

Being a student and a mother now, its hard to go to dance classes as life gets busy. I learned Ballat while was in high school, but never really mastered it as I just went to those classes for only 8 months.

For me ballat is not just a dance it is a full body workout, but some aspects of technique are commonly not presented with clarity as to what the anatomical factors are. Ballat exercises in soft shoes and pointed shoes all require the correct posture and alignments. I have always been passionate about ballat but being a mother now, its been impossible for me to go to those ballat dancing classes.

I came across this ballat bible package, and it’s been of tremendous help for me, as I could just use it while I have

Around half an hour at home, and I can just sit in front of the computer in my room get the music on and sometimes even dance with my husband :) This bible packages gave me those minute details about the postures and the grace and also helped me refresh and practice.

This package includes : download it here

ð The Ballat Bible - The 3 Simple Rules of a Prima Ballerina

ð 30 minutes of audio interview with Grant Davies from R G Dance.

ð The ballat bible audio having software for explaining term and its definition

ð The ballat bible quick reference videos -- total 60 videos

Being a ballat dancer and passionate about ballat, I would just recommend this ballat bible package to anyone interested or connected to ballat dance in any way. Regards.

Purchasing information : Website

Ballet Bible review

Ballet Bible review

Since childhood, I have been actively dancing. I learned dancing at the period I started to learn to walk ,haha. In the earlier stages I would just learn dancing while watching television and later on went to dancing classes.

Being a student and a mother now, its hard to go to dance classes as life gets busy. I learned Ballet while was in high school, but never really mastered it as I just went to those classes for only 8 months.

For me ballet is not just a dance it is a full body workout, but some aspects of technique are commonly not presented with clarity as to what the anatomical factors are. Ballet exercises in soft shoes and pointed shoes all require the correct posture and alignments. I have always been passionate about ballet but being a mother now, its been impossible for me to go to those ballet dancing classes.

I came across this ballet bible package, and it’s been of tremendous help for me, as I could just use it while I have

Around half an hour at home, and I can just sit in front of the computer in my room get the music on and sometimes even dance with my husband :) This bible packages gave me those minute details about the postures and the grace and also helped me refresh and practice.

This package includes : download it here

ð The Ballet Bible - The 3 Simple Rules of a Prima Ballerina

ð 30 minutes of audio interview with Grant Davies from R G Dance.

ð The ballet bible audio having software for explaining term and its definition

ð The ballet bible quick reference videos -- total 60 videos

Being a ballet dancer and passionate about ballet, I would just recommend this ballet bible package to anyone interested or connected to ballet dance in any way. Regards.

Purchasing information : Website

BA 340 Human Resource Management Final Quiz

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1. The type of profit-sharing plan that involves placing company contributions in an irrevocable trust, is ______.

A) the cash plan
B) the Lincoln incentive system
C) the Jefferson incentive system
D) the deferred profit-sharing plan

2.

_________ proposed a two-factor theory that explains how motivator factors relate to satisfaction and hygiene factors relate to dissatisfaction.

A) Frederick Taylor
B) Abraham Maslow
C) Frederick Herzberg
D) David McClelland

3.

_______ is typically responsible for paying the fees charged by private employment agencies when they place qualified individuals in jobs.

A) The U.S. Department of Labor
B) The employer
C) The employee
D) The state employment commission

4.

A mass interview differs from traditional panel interviews in that the team of interviewers interviews __________.

A) several candidates simultaneously
B) several candidates serially
C) several candidates sequentially
D) each candidate by using sub-groups of a team

5.

A __________ serves to communicate who a company is, what it does, and where it is headed.

A) Mission
B) Strategic plan
C) Code of ethics
D) Vision

6.

The type of interview that could also be described as somewhat like a general conversation is ____________.

A) non-directive
B) directive
C) standardized
D) situational

7.

The goal of ________ is to provide sure, prompt income and medical benefits to work-related accident victims or their dependents, regardless of fault.

A) severance pay
B) sick leave
C) the Family and Medical Leave Act
D) workers' compensation

8.

___________ is a method of test validation that requires thorough job analysis and accurate job descriptions.

A) Equivalent form estimate
B) Content validity
C) Construct validity
D) Internal comparison estimate

9.

Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) refers to an appraisal which ________.

A) is based on progress made toward the accomplishment of measurable goals
B) combines the benefits of critical incidents, and traditional rating scales.
C) requires that the supervisor keep a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate's work-related behavior
D) requires a supervisor to evaluate performance by assigning predetermined percentages of those being rated into performance categories

10.

The Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA)__________.

A) Provides guidelines regarding what rates of return employers should use in computing their pension plan values.
B) Covers pension plans and requires employers to have written plan documents that establish terms such as eligibility and participation
C) Prohibits an employer's health plan from using incentives to encourage employees to leave the hospital, after childbirth, after less than the legislatively-determined minimum stay
D) Limits the ability of health plans to set annual or lifetime maximums on mental and nervous disorder benefits

11.

According to the Fair Labor Standards Act, if a worker covered by the act works more than 40 hours in a workweek, he or she will receive overtime pay at a rate of ______________ of normal pay for the number of hours worked beyond 40.

A) 50%
B) 100%
C) 150%
D) 200%

12.

A mandatory benefit required by federal or state law is ____________.

A) disability insurance
B) workers compensation
C) paid time off for vacations and holidays
D) health insurance

13.

The concept of comparable worth is based on ________.

A) Title VII
B) The Equal Pay Act of 1963
C) Executive Order 11246
D) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

14.

According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, part-time work is defined as less than _______ hours per week.

A) 20
B) 30
C) 35
D) 40

15.

________ is/are categorized as an indirect payment portion of employee compensation.

A) Wages
B) Salaries
C) Employer-paid insurance
D) Commissions

16.

______ exists when an employer treats an individual differently because that individual is a member of a particular race, religion, gender or ethnic group.

A) Disparate treatment
B) Quid pro quo discrimination
C) Unintentional discrimination
D) Adverse impact

17.

Factors that establish how the jobs compare to one another and set the pay for each job are called _________.

A) compensable factors
B) job evaluation factors
C) comparison factors
D) ranking factors

18.

FedEx stations have long existed in Kinko's stores to provide customers a convenient location, but FedEx recently acquired Kinko's. This is an illustration of a _________ strategy by FedEx.

A) vertical integration
B) diversification
C) geographic expansion
D) horizontal integration

19.

Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called _____.

A) numerology
B) astrology
C) polygraph output assessment
D) handwriting analysis

20.

Job duties that employees must be able to perform, with or without reasonable accommodation, are called ________.

A) essential job functions
B) job requirements
C) primary job activities
D) work activities

21.

________ refers to the ownership employees build up in their pension plan should their employment be terminated before retirement.

A) Portability
B) Equity
C) Vesting
D) Unemployment

22.

The ______ gave employers the right to express their views concerning union organization.

A) Norris-LaGuardia Act
B) Taft-Hartley Act
C) Gompers Act
D) Landrum-Griffin Act

23.

The _________ gives all persons the same right to make and enforce contracts and to benefit from the laws of the land.

A) Fifth Amendment
B) Civil Rights Act of 1866
C) Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act
D) Civil Rights Act of 1991

24.

______________ is training and development method that allows a person to learn by copying the behaviors of others.

A) On-the-job training
B) Programmed learning
C) Apprenticeship training
D) Behavior modeling

25.

The exception to the termination at will doctrine that would protect an employee from dismissal, because employers should not fire employees without good cause, is called the _______ exception.

A) covenant of good faith
B) morality
C) implied contract
D) public policy

26.

Which of the following is not a job analysis method?

A) Observation
B) Reengineering
C) Questionnaires
D) Enployee recording

27.

The fourth step in the procedure for developing a guide for structured situational interviews is to ____________.

A) rate the job's main duties
B) create interview questions
C) write a job description
D) create benchmark answers

28.

The personality characteristic that captures a combination of achievement and dependability is ______________.

A) neuroticism
B) extraversion
C) conscientiousness
D) agreeableness

29.

The point method of job evaluation entails _________.

A) assigning numerical values to specific job factors
B) ranking each job relative to all other jobs based on some overall factor
C) arranging jobs in order according to their value to the company
D) deciding which jobs have more of the chosen compensable factors

30.

The purpose of a strategic plan is to identify _______________.

A) differential advantage
B) organizational purposes and objectives
C) financial analysis
D) success factor

31.

The Wagner Act _________.

A) guaranteed each employee the right to bargain collectively, free from interference, restraint, or coercion
B) made yellow dog contracts unenforceable
C) provided for secret ballot elections for determining whether a firm's employees would unionize
D) banned unions from restraining or coercing employees from exercising their guaranteed bargaining rights

32.

Under the Civil Rights Act of 1991, once a plaintiff shows disparate impact, __________ has the burden of proving that the challenged practice is job related for the position in question.

A) the plaintiff
B) the defense attorney
C) the employer
D) the courts

33.

When a manager on international assignment is liable for taxes over and above those he or she would have to pay in their home country, ________ usually pays the extra tax burden.

A) the employee
B) the employer
C) the home country
D) the host country

34.

When evaluating the effectiveness of recruitment sources, _______ should be measured.

A) the cost of using each source
B) the number of applicants produced
C) the quality of applicants produced
D) the time involved in using each source

35.

What is the term for the process of the union inundating communities with organizers to target a particular business?

A) Recruitment
B) Flooding
C) Salting
D) Labor campaigns

36.

Which of the following is a hallmark of the hot stove approach to disciplinary action?

A) Happens immediately
B) Gives consistent consequences
C) Provides warning
D) All of the above

37.

OSHA's primary mission is to search for unsafe working conditions.

A) True
B) False

38.

The Corporate and Auditing Accountability, Responsibility and Transparency Act is also known as the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.

A) True
B) False

39.

Attempts to structure work conditions so that they maximize energy conservation, promote good posture, and allow workers to function without pain or impairment is called __________.

A) Isometrics
B) Ergotism
C) Ergonomics
D) Motion study

40.

What is the systematic process of determining the skills, duties, and knowledge required for performing jobs in an organization?

A) Planning
B) Job analysis
C) Human resource analysis
D) Organizational research

41.

What is an employee called who is a citizen of the country where the subsidiary is located?

A) Host country national
B) Expatriate
C) Third country national
D) Operant

42.

____________is a statement of the values adopted by the company, its employees and its directors and sets the tone of top management regarding expected behavior?

A) Vision statement
B) Code of ethics
C) Mission statement
D) Policy manual

43.

What term refers to any perceived difference among people's age, functional specialty, profession, geographic origin, lifestyle, position, or any other perceived difference?

A) Culture
B) Discrimination
C) Disparate treatment
D) Diversity

44.

The utilization of individuals to achieve organizational objectives is:

A) Human resource management
B) Human resource staffing
C) Human resource leadership
D) Human resource planning

45.

_________ is fundamental to union and management relations in the United States?

A) Politics
B) Power process
C) Collective bargaining
D) Conflict management

46.

An agreement that forbids an employee from joining a union is called a yellow-dog ocntract.

A) True
B) False

47.

The agency responsible for enforcing the Civil Rights Act in the workplace is the:

A) Title VII
B) Department of Justice
C) OFCCP
D) EEOC

48.

Type I ethics is the relationshiop between what one believes and how one behaves.

A) True
B) False

49.

One goal of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)is to eliminate the ability of insurance companies to reject coverage for individuals because of preexisting conditions.

A) True
B) False

50.

The following statements about the Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA) are true: (choose all that apply)

A) Provides employees with up to 12 weeks per year of paid leave
B) Applies to employers with 50 or more employees
C) FMLA rights apply to employees with and at 1250 hours of service in a 12 month period
D) Gives the employee the right to return to the same or an equivalent position


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