Statistics Multiple Choice Quiz A++

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1) Which level of measurement is required for the median?
A. Nominal

B. Ratio

C. Ordinal

D. Interval



2) Which level of measurement is required for the mode?
A. Nominal

B. Ratio

C. Ordinal

D. Interval



3) The weighted mean is a special case of the:
A. Mean

B. Geometric mean

C. Median

D. Mode



4) Which of the following is not a requirement of a probability distribution?
A. Equally likely probability of a success.

B. The probability of each outcome is between 0 and 1.
C. Sum of the possible outcomes is 1.00.

D. The outcomes are mutually exclusive.



5) Which of the following is not a requirement of a binomial distribution?
A. A constant probability of success.
B. Equally likely outcomes.

C. Only two possible outcomes.

D. A fixed number of trails.



6) In which of the following distributions is the probability of a success usually small?
A. Binomial

B. All distribution

C. Poisson

D. Hypergeometric





7) The difference between the sample mean and the population mean is called the
A. Population mean.

B. Sampling error.

C. Population standard deviation.
D. Standard error of the mean.



8) In a simple random sample
A. Every Kth item is selected to be in the sample.

B. Every item has a chance to be in the sample.

C. Every item has the same chance to be in the sample.
D. All of these



9) Suppose a population consisted of 20 items. How many different samples of n = 3 are possible?
A. 6840

B. 120

C. 1140

D. 20



10) Which of the following statements is not a characteristic of the t distribution?
A. It is a continuous distribution.

B. Like z there is only one t distribution.
C. It has a mean of 0.

D. It is symmetrical.



11) We wish to develop a confidence interval for the population mean. The shape of the population is not known, but we have a sample of 40 observations. We decide to use the 92% level of confidence. The appropriate value of z is:
A. 1.96

B. 1.75

C. 1.65

D. 2.58



12) A point estimate is
A. Always an estimate of the population mean.
B. Always equal to the population value.

C. An estimate of the population parameter.

D. None of these





) Which of the following is a correct statement about a probability?
A. It may range from 0 to 1.

B. It cannot be reported to more than 1 decimal place.
C. It may assume negative values.

D. It may be greater than 1.



14) Which of the following is not a type of probability?
A. Subjective

B. Relative frequency
C. Classical

D. Independent



15) An experiment is a:
A. Collection of events

B. Always greater than 1.

C. The act of taking a measurement or the observation of some activity.
D. Collection of outcomes.




16) A nominal scale variable is
A. Usually the result of counting something.
B. May assume negative values.

C. Cannot have more than two categories.

D. Has a meaningful zero point.



17) The ratio scale of measurement
A. Usually involves ranking.

B. Has a meaningful zero point.

C. Is usually based on counting.

D. Cannot assume negative values.



18) Which of the following statements is true regarding a sample?
A. It is a part of population.

B. It must contain at least five observations.
C. It refers to descriptive statistics

D. All of these are correct




19) Which of the following is a requirement for a two-sample test of proportions.
A. The population standard deviations are equal.
B. Both samples are at least 30.

C. nB and n(1-B) are both greater than 5.

D. Both populations are positively skewed.



20) The alternate hypothesis
A. Is accepted if the null hypothesis is rejected.
B. Tells the value of the sample mean.

C. None of these

D. Will always contain the equal sign.



21) A Type I error is
A. The correct decision

B. A value determined from the test statistic

C. Accepting the null hypothesis when it is false.
D. Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true



22) To conduct a nonparametric test the.
A. Population must follow the normal distribution.

B. The standard deviation must be known.

C. The data must be at least interval scale.

D. It is not necessary to make any assumption about the shape of the population.


23) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the X2
A. Its shape is based on the sample size.

B. It is not negative.

C. It approaches a normal distribution as the degrees of freedom increase.
D. It is positively skewed.



24) In a contingency table
A. The number of rows must be the same as the number of columns.
B. A variable is classified according to two criteria.

C. There must be at least 10 observations in each cell.

D. All of these




25) A dummy variable or indicator variable
A. May assume only a value of 0 or 1.

B. Is another term for the dependent variable.
C. Is equal to Y

D. Is found by (Y - Y).



26) In the ANOVA table the value of k is
A. The number of independent variables.

B. The total number of observations

C. The sum of squares total.

D. The number of degrees of freedom.



27) In a multiple regression equation
A. There is only one dependent variable.

B. The R2 term must be at least .50.

C. All the regression coefficient must be between -1.00 and 1.00.
D. None of these

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FIN/571 Corporate Finance Final Exam Answers


1) Occurs when inaccurate information can falsely exist. A. free-rider problem B. adverse selection C. moral hazard D. The Principle of Valuable Ideas
2) Which principle states that extraordinary returns are achievable with new ideas? A. The Principle of Valuable Ideas B. The Principle of Risk-Return Trade-Off C. The Principle of Incremental Ideas D. The Notional Principle
3) Which of the following statements is true? A. The difference between the value of one action and the value of the best alternative is called an opportunity cost. B. An agent-manager can never make bad decisions. C. A security is a claim issued by a firm that pays owners interest but not dividends. D. A call option analyzes conflicts of interest and behavior in a principal-agent relationship.
4) Generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) refers to A. the extent to which something can be sold for cash quickly and easily without loss of value. B. the length of an asset’s life when it is issued. C. a technical accounting term that encompasses the conventions, rules, and procedures necessary to define accepted accounting practice at a particular time. D. a report issued annually by a firm that includes, at a minimum, an income statement, a balance sheet, a statement of cash flows, and accompanying notes.
5) Remaining maturity refers to: A. the amount of time remaining until its maturity. B. the length of an asset’s life when it is issued. C. a technical accounting term that encompasses the conventions, rules, and procedures necessary to define accepted accounting practice at a particular time. D. a report issued annually by a firm that includes, at a minimum, an income statement, a balance sheet, a statement of cash flows, and accompanying notes.
6) The annual report refers to A. the extent to which something can be sold for cash quickly and easily without loss of value. B. a report issued annually by managers to primarily convey information about select working capital ratios. C. the length of time remaining until an asset’s maturity. D. a report issued annually by a firm that includes, at a minimum, an income statement, a balance sheet, a statement of cash flows, and accompanying notes.
7) The firm’s assets in the balance sheet refer to: A. the extent to which something can be sold for cash quickly and easily without loss of value. B. the productive resources in the firm’s operations. C. the statement of a firm's financial position at one point in time, including its assets and the claims on those assets by creditors (liabilities) and owners (stockholders' equity).
8) Book value (or Net book value) refers to: A. the net amount shown in the accounting statements. B. the length of an asset’s life when it is issued. C. the statement of a firm's financial position at one point in time, including its assets and the claims on those assets by creditors (liabilities) and owners (stockholders' equity). D. the price for which something could be bought or sold in a reasonable length of time, where “reasonable length of time” is defined in terms of the item’s liquidity.
9) Original maturity refers to: A. the net amount (net book value) for something shown in quarterly accounting statements. B. the length of an asset’s life when it is issued. C. a technical accounting term that encompasses the conventions, rules, and procedures necessary to define accepted accounting practice at a particular time. D. the price for which something could be bought or sold in a reasonable length of time, where “reasonable length of time” is defined in terms of the item’s liquidity. FIN/571 Corporate Finance Final Exam Progress: (0/57)
10) Preferred stock payment obligations are typically __________. A. viewed like debt obligations. B. issued with a maturity date. C. valued as an annuity. D. none of these
11) Assume that the par value of a bond is $1,000. Consider a bond where the coupon rate is 9% and the current yield is 10%. Which of the following statements is true? A. The current yield was a lot greater than 9% when the bond was first issued B. The current yield was a lot less than 9% when the bond was first issued C. The market value of the bond is less than $1,000 D. The market value of the bond is more than $1,000
12) If the yield to maturity for a bond is less than the bond's coupon rate, then the market value of the bond is __________. A. less than the par value. B. greater than the par value. C. cannot tell D. equal to the par value.
13) According to the CAPM, the expected return for a portfolio is determined by the portfolio's. A. variance. B. beta. C. standard deviation. D. none of these
14) Certain countries have restrictions. In practice, U.S. investors have NOT invested very much internationally. Possible factors include __________. A. lower transaction costs. B. expropriation risk. C. firm-specific risk. D. all of these
15) Certain countries have restrictions. In practice, U.S. investors have NOT invested very much internationally. Possible factors include __________. A. non-listing of foreign securities on U.S. stock exchanges. B. foreign tax considerations. C. efficiency in converting currencies. D. all of these
16) Dimensions of risk include ___________. A. the certainty of a negative outcome B. uncertainty about the future outcome C. uncertainty about yesterday’s outcome D. the impossibility of the same return
17) One problem with using negative values for w1 (the proportion invested in the riskless asset) to represent a borrowed amount is that the implied borrowing rate of interest is the same as __________. A. the current rate of interest B. the prime rate of interest C. the nominal rate of interest D. the lending rate of interest
18) The Principle of __________ implies that the expected return for an asset equals its required return. A. Risk-Return Trade-Off B. Capital Market Efficiency C. Signaling D. Comparative Advantage FIN/571 Corporate Finance Final Exam Progress: (0/57)
19) __________ says to calculate the incremental after-tax cash flows connected with working capital decisions. A. The Principle of Incremental Benefits B. The Signaling Principle C. The Options Principle D. The Principle of Time Value of Money
20) Stony Products has an inventory conversion period (ICP) of about 60.83 days. The receivables collection period (RCP) is 36.50 days. The payables deferral period (PDP) is about 30.42 days. What is Stony's cash conversion cycle (CCC)? A. about 69 days B. about 66 days C. about 67 days D. about 68 days
21) Stony Products has a payables turnover of six times. What is Stony's payables deferral period (PDP)? A. about 30.42 days B. about 56.50 days C. about 60.83 days D. none of these
22) Firms make short-term financial decisions just about every day solving such questions as __________. A. Where should we borrow? B. Where should we invest our cash? C. How much liquidity should we have? D. all of these
23) __________ says to calculate the incremental after-tax cash flows connected with working capital decisions. A. The Options Principle B. The Signaling Principle C. The Principle of Incremental Benefits D. The Principle of Time Value of Money
24) Main sources of short-term funds include __________. A. trade credit and commercial paper B. futures and bank loans C. bonds and trade credit D. none of these
25) Which of the following statements is (are) true? A. The "dating 120" or the "60 extra" mean that the clock does not start until 120 or 60 days after the invoice date. B. Prox or proximate refers to the next month. C. Invoices with "10th prox" must be paid by the 10th of the next month. D. all of these
26) Which (if any) of the following statements is false? A. The invoice is a written statement about goods that were ordered, along with their prices and the payment dates. In other words, the invoice is simply the bill for purchases. B. For the 4/10, net 40 credit terms, you are offering a total credit period of 30 days from the date of the invoice, a discount period of 10 days, and a 4% discount if paid on or before the discount period expires. C. When a firm is using invoice billing, the invoice that accompanies shipment is a separate bill to be paid. D. none of these
27) Most credit sales are made on an open account basis, which means __________. A. that suppliers cannot dictate the terms of the purchase. B. that customers simply purchase what they want. C. that suppliers dictate the terms of the purchase. D. that customers cannot simply purchase what they want. FIN/571 Corporate Finance Final Exam Progress: (0/57)
28) An all-equity-financed firm would __________. A. pay corporate income taxes if its taxable income is positive. B. not pay any income taxes because interest would exactly offset its taxable income. C. pay corporate income taxes because it would have interest expense. D. not pay corporate income taxes because it would have no interest expense.
29) A profitable firm would __________. A. pay corporate income taxes because it would have interest expense. B. pay corporate income taxes because it would not have interest expense. C. pay corporate income taxes if it had a positive taxable income. D. none of these
30) An investor's risky portfolio is made up of individual stocks. Which of the following statements about this portfolio is true? A. Each stock in the portfolio will have a beta greater than one. B. Each stock in the portfolio has its own beta. C. Selling any stock in this portfolio will lower the beta of the portfolio. D. An investor cannot change the risk of this portfolio by her choice about personal leverage (lending or borrowing).
31) Boeing Corporation is a world leader in commercial aircraft. In the face of competition, Boeing often faces a critical __________ decision: whether to develop a new generation of passenger aircraft. A. dividend B. present value C. payback D. capital budgeting
32) The capital budgeting process can be broken down into five steps. These steps include which of the following? A. Generate ideas for capital budgeting projects B. Prepare proposals C. Review existing projects and facilities D. all of these
33) There are two important tax considerations for a capital budgeting project. These include which (if any) of the following? A. It is indeed cash flow that’s irrelevant. B. The standard cash flow estimation does not explicitly identify the financing costs. C. The Principle of Incremental Benefits reminds us that it is the incremental cash flow that’s relevant. D. none of these
34) The __________ method breaks down when evaluating projects in which the sign of the cash flow changes. A. Payback B. NPV C. PI D. IRR
35) Whenever projects are both independent and conventional, then the IRR and NPV methods agree. Which of the following statements is true? A. A mutually exclusive project is one that can be chosen independently of other projects. B. When undertaking one project prevents investing in another project, and vice versa, the projects are said to have a positive payback. C. A conventional project is a project with an initial cash outflow that is followed by one or more expected future cash inflows. D. all of these
36) In practice, the __________ rule is preferred. A. PI B. NPV C. IRR D. Payback FIN/571 Corporate Finance Final Exam Progress: (0/57)
37) Studies show systematic differences in capital structures across industries. These are due mostly to differences in __________. A. accounting practices. B. the firm’s inventory turnover ratio. C. the ability of assets to support borrowing. D. management’s attitude toward what other industries are doing.
38) Studies show systematic differences in capital structures across industries. These are due mostly to differences in the availability of tax shelter provided by things other than debt, such as __________. A. accelerated depreciation. B. operating tax loss carryforwards. C. investment tax credit. D. all of these
39) Studies show systematic differences in capital structures across industries. These are due mostly to differences in __________. A. hiring and firing practices. B. the availability of tax shelter provided by things other than debt, such as accelerated depreciation, investment tax credit, and operating tax loss carryforwards. C. what the arbitrage pricing theory tells us. D. none of these
40) There can be a variety of motives for stock repurchases including __________. A. a buyback of overvalued stock. B. an increase in leverage. C. a decrease in anticipated earnings. D. all of these
41) Some countries have __________ in which shareholders' returns are not fully taxed twice. A. an imputation tax system B. a split tax system C. a two-tier tax system D. none of these
42) There can be a variety of motives for stock repurchases including __________. A. a decrease in leverage. B. a buyback of undervalued stock. C. a decrease in anticipated earnings. D. all of these
43) Mortgage bonds are __________. A. secured by a lien on general assets of the issuer B. secured by a lien on specific assets of the issuer C. usually secured by assets such as common shares of one of the issuer's subsidiaries D. none of these
44) Conditional sales contracts __________. A. are seldom issued to finance the purchase of aircraft B. are similar to equipment trust certificates C. enable the borrower to obtain title to the assets only before it fully repays the debt D. all of these
45) The Time Value of Money Principle says __________. A. to look for the most advantageous ways to finance the firm, such as the lowest-cost debt alternative B. to use discounted cash flow analysis to compare the costs and benefits of financing decisions, such as alternative securities to sell, lease versus borrow and buy, and bond refunding C. to set a price and other terms that investors will find acceptable when issuing securities D. that announcing the firm's decision to issue securities conveys information about the firm
46) __________ says to look for opportunities to develop asset-based financing arrangements that offer new positive-NPV financing mechanisms. A. The Principle of Valuable Ideas B. The Time Value of Money Principle C. The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior D. The Principle of Comparative Advantage
47) The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior says __________. A. to calculate the net advantage of leasing based on the incremental after-tax benefits that leasing will provide. B. to look for profitable opportunities to lease (or rent) an asset, rather than borrow and buy it. C. to use discounted cash flow analysis to compare the costs and benefits of leasing, relative to the alternative of borrowing and buying. D. that leasing transfers the tax benefits of ownership from the lessee to the lessor.
48) __________ says to transfer the tax benefits of ownership to other parties if they are willing to pay for benefits your firm cannot use. A. The Principle of Two-Sided Transactions B. The Principle of Incremental Benefits C. The Principle of Comparative Advantage D. The Capital Market Efficiency Principle FIN/571 Corporate Finance Final Exam Progress: (0/57)
49) The wholesale price for Captain John’s is $1.00 per loaf, and the variable cost of production is $0.50 per loaf. Captain John’s is expecting that expansion will allow them to sell an additional 5.0 million loaves in the next year. What additional revenues minus expenses will be generated from expansion? A. $25,000 B. $250,000 C. $550,000 D. none of these
50) The wholesale price for Captain John’s is $0.612 per loaf, and the variable cost of production is $0.387 per loaf. Captain John’s is expecting that expansion will allow them to sell an additional 4.5 million loaves in the next five years. What additional revenues minus expenses will be generated from expansion? A. $1,102,000 B. $912,500 C. $1,012,500 D. $1,000,500
51) The wholesale price for Captain John’s is $3.00 per loaf. One million loaves will be sold in the next year. What is the contribution margin? A. cannot tell B. $3.00 C. $3,000,000 D. $3,000,000 minus fixed costs
52) Which of the following statements is true? A. Soft capital rationing refers to the rationing imposed externally by limited funds for borrowing from outside sources. B. Hard capital rationing refers to the rationing imposed internally by the firm. C. A post audit is a set of procedures for evaluating a capital budgeting decision after the fact. D. all of these
53) Pursuing valuable ideas is the best way __________. A. to avoid risk. B. to achieve extraordinary returns. C. to restrain your spending. D. to get yourself in trouble.
54) In efficient markets, as in the United States, you should think long and hard before you conclude that a market price is __________. A. wrong. B. fair. C. followed by many analysts. D. all of these
55) __________ says to forecast the firm’s cash flows, and analyze the incremental cash flows of alternative decisions. A. The Principle of Risk-Return Trade-Off B. The Signaling Principle C. The Principle of Incremental Benefits D. The Time Value of Money Principle
56) ___________ says to use both bottom-up and top-down processes to increase the chance of uncovering valuable ideas. A. The Principle of Valuable Ideas B. The Behavioral Principle C. The Principle of Two-Sided Transactions D. The Principle of Comparative Advantage
57) __________ says to use common industry practices as a good starting place for the planning process. A. The Behavioral Principle B. The Principle of Incremental Benefits C. The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior D. The Principle of Valuable Ideas
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Select a process that you perform daily but would like to spend less time doing, such as driving to work


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Design a Flowchart for a Process
• Select a process that you perform daily but would like to spend less time doing, such as driving to work. Pick a process which (a) is personal to your daily activities (and not dependent on corporate data or complex organization workflows) and (b) can be broken down into a number of individual activities which can easily be measured (time, output, etc.). Note: Be sure to identify a process and collect data that will be both meaningful and manageable for the Week Five assignment.
• Design a flowchart using a Microsoft Office tool (e.g .PowerPoint, Visio).
• Comment on the factors that affect the process design.
• Identify at least one metric to measure the process.
• Submit your flowchart for the process.
• Begin collecting data for the identified metric every day of the workweek. You must submit the data collected at the end of each week.
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Week six OPS/571 Operation Management Process Design for Riordan Manufacturing

NOTE: PLEASE RE-WORD THIS TUTORIAL TO AVOID PLAGIARISM


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Operation Management Process Design for Riordan Manufacturing. Create a 1,050-word (maximum) proposal package for Riordan in which you include the following items in the proposal:

· The MRP for the manufacturing of the Riordan electric fans

· A new process design for the production of the Riordan electric fans

· A supply chain for the electric fans, taking advantage of any global opportunities available to Riordan Manufacturing such as lower labor costs

· A production forecast for the Riordan electric fans

· An implementation plan, including a Gantt chart of the design process, for the Riordan electric fans

· A cover letter detailing how you will coordinate aggregate operations planning and TQM for the Riordan electric fans

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Final quiz for Quantitative Methods

Final quiz for Quantitative Methods -- Download Full Solution : Click HERE
1.
A sample of eight observations of variables x and y is shown below:
x 5 3 7 9 2 4 6 8
y 20 23 15 11 27 21 17 14
Find the value of coefficient of correlation, r.
(Points: 6)
- 0.991
0.872
- 0.512
0.942


2. The largest value in a set of data is 160, and the smallest value is 70. If the resulting frequency distribution is to have six classes of equal width, what will be the class interval? (Points: 6)
15
6
12
5


3. Chebyshev�s Theorem states that the percentage of observations in a data set that should fall within five standard deviations of their mean is: (Points: 6)
90%
at least 90%
96%
at least 96%
25%


4.
The salaries (in thousands of dollars) for a sample of 13 employees of a firm are: 26.5, 23.5, 29.7, 24.8, 21.1, 24.3, 20.4, 22.7, 27.2, 23.7, 24.1, 24.8, and 28.2.
Compute the variance of the salaries.
(Points: 6)
2.562
6.125
9.223
7.097


5. A monthly report to the Texas Department of Health, division of Water Hygiene, contained the following water production data in thousands of gallons:
5263 5636 5264 4395 6090 5293 4668 5725 5171 4378
5118 5538 4838 5167 5119 5438 6843 5262 4653 5303
5913 4570 5142 5964 6431 4719 5358 6043 4554 5805


What is the value of the interquartile range. The values are rounded (no decimal values included). (Points: 6)
A) 937
B) 752
C) 886
D) 912


6. Six candidates for a new position of vice-president for academic affairs have been selected. Three of the candidates are female. The candidates� years of experience are as follows.
Candidate Experience
Female 1
Female 2
Female 3
Male 1
Male 2
Male 3 5
9
11
6
4
8
Suppose one of the candidates is selected at random. Define the following events:

A = person selected has 9 years experience
B = person selected is a female

Find P(A / B). (Points: 6)
A) 0.4552
B) 0.333
C) 0.581
D) 0.418


7. For a normally distributed random variable, the average price for a bushel of soybeans is $6.20 with a standard deviation of $0.20.

For what proportion of outcomes will the price be between $6.10 and $6.30? (Points: 6)
A) 0.2015
B) 0.4458
C) 0.3252
D) 0.3830


8. A pharmaceutical company interested in measuring how often physicians prescribe a certain drug has selected a simple random sample from each of two groups: M.D. (medical doctors) and D.O (osteopathic doctors). What is this type of sampling called? (Points: 6)
Simple random sampling
Cluster sampling
Stratified sampling
Purposive sampling


9.
The odds in favor of an event are the number of successes divided by the number of failures. The probability of this event occurring is the number of successes divided by the sum of the number of successes and the number of failures. The number of successes is five and the number of failures is four.
Find the odds in favor of success.
(Points: 6)
5 to 9
4 to 9
5 to 4
4 to 5


10. Approximately 14 percent of the population of Arizona is 65 years or older. A random sample of five persons from this population is taken. The probability that less than 2 of the 5 are 65 years or older is (Points: 6)
0.8533
0.1467
0.4704
0.3829

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11. In the past, young women drivers have maintained a better driving record than young men drivers. An insurance company is concerned with the driving record of its insured customers. Specifically, it conducts a test for the number of speeding tickets received during the past year by drivers between the ages of 18 and 25.
Men Women
n1= 120 n2= 85
1= 1.2
2 = 0.4

s21 = 24.8 s22 = 10.6
A test for the equality of average number of tickets per driver for the two groups is desired.
Use = 0.01.
Calculate the p-value for this test.
(Points: 6)
A) 0.3395
B) 0.2015
C) 0.1646
D) 0.4561


12. Given an infinite population with a mean of 75 and a standard deviation of 12, the probability that the mean of a sample of 36 observations, taken at random from this population, exceeds 78 is (Points: 6)
0.4332
0.0668
0.0987
0.9013


13. A producer of a juice drink advertises that it contains 10% real fruit juices. A sample of 75 bottles of the drink is analyzed and the percent of real fruit juices is found to be 6.5%. If the true proportion is actually 0.10, what is the probability that the sample percent will be 6.5% or less? (Points: 6)
0.7211
0.1562
0.5488
0.8325


14. The security department of a state university is planning its budget for the next year. In estimating the man-hours for security during university sponsored music concerts, the average length of music concerts is needed. A random sample from thirty-six security departments at universities was taken and the sample mean length of concerts was 160 minutes. Suppose the population standard deviation is 45 minutes. A 95 percent confidence interval for the true mean duration of music concerts is: (Points: 6)
157.55 to 162.45
147.63 to 172.37
71.8 to 248.2
145.3 to 174.7


15. Based on sample data, the 90% confidence interval limits for the population mean are 170.86 and 195.42. If the 10% level of significance was used in testing the hypotheses : =201, : 201, the null hypothesis: (Points: 6)

would be rejected


would not be rejected


would have to be revised


None of the above



16. Suppose that 9 observations are drawn from a normal population whose standard deviation is 2. The observations are: 15, 9, 13, 11, 8, 12, 11, 7, and 10. At 95% confidence, you want to determine whether the mean of the population from which this sample was taken is significantly different from 10.

Compute the value of the test statistic and interpret the result. (Points: 6)
A) Z= 1.5; reject H0
B) Z =1.0; fail to reject H0
C) Z=1.0; reject H0
D) Z= 1.5; fail to reject


17.
Consider the following data values of variables x and y:
x 97 113 81 68 90 79
y 103 103 105 115 127 104
Use Excel to perform a regression analysis on the data. What is the regression equation?
(Points: 6)
A) Y = 12 � 1.54 X
B) Y = 83 + 38.28 X
C) Y= 125 � 0.173 X
D) Y = 98 + 0.115 X


18. The number of degrees of freedom associated with the t test, when the data are gathered from a matched pairs experiment with 13 pairs, is: (Points: 6)
13
26
12
24


19. One-way ANOVA is performed on three independent samples with: = 6, = 7, and = 8. The critical value obtained from the F-table for this test at the 2.5% level of significance equals: (Points: 6)
3.55
39.45
4.56
29.45


20. A multiple regression analysis includes 25 data points and 4 independent variables results in SST = 200 and SSR = 150. The multiple standard error of estimate will be: (Points: 6)
1.333
6.124
2.500
1.581


21. Membership on a stock exchange for five years is given below:
Year Members
1996 520
1997 510
1998 505
1999 508
2000 512
Use the exponential smoothing procedure to obtain estimates of the trend (this is not the logarithm approach here).
Set the smoothed value for 1996 equal to the actual and use a smoothing constant,
α = 0.4. Compute the forecasted value for 2000.
(Points: 6)
A) 510.896
B) 437.246
C) 635.324
D) 310.775


22. The upsurge in school supply sales in the fall of each year is an example of the: (Points: 6)

irregular component.


trend component.


seasonal component.


cyclical component.



23. When the purpose of sampling is to detect when a process becomes too variable, the chart of choice will be a c-chart. Is it true or false? (Points: 6)
True
False


24. Forty samples of size 1,000 were drawn from a manufacturing process and the number of defectives in each sample was counted. The mean sample proportion was 0.05. The centerline for the p chart is: (Points: 6)
0.05
50.0
2.00
25.0


25. A Type II error is defined as: (Points: 6)

rejecting a true null hypothesis


rejecting a false null hypothesis


failing to reject a true null hypothesis

failing to reject a false null hypothesis

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13-45 Variable and Absorption Costing Chan Manufacturing Company data

13-45 Variable and Absorption Costing
Chan Manufacturing Company data for 20X7 follow:
Sales: 12,000 units at $17 each
Actual production 15,000 units
Expected volume of production 18,000 units
Manufacturing costs incurred
Variable $120,000
Fixed 63,000
Nonmanufacturing costs incurred
Variable $ 24,000
Fixed 18,000

1. Determine operating income for 20X7, assuming the firm uses the variable-costing approach to product costing. (Do not prepare a statement.)


2. Assume that there is no January 1, 20X7, inventory; no variances are allocated to inventory; and the firm uses a “full absorption” approach to product costing. Compute (a) the cost assigned to December 31, 20X7, inventory; and (b) operating income for the year ended December 31, 20X7. (Do not prepare a statement.)


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Write a complete program named Buttons that implements a window with three buttons – left, blue, and reset.

Write a complete program named Buttons that implements a window with three buttons – left, blue, and reset. When the left button is clicked, the window’s contents (the three buttons) shifts left. When the blue button is clicked, the window’s background color changes to blue. When the reset button is clicked, the window’s contents shifts back to the original center alignment and the window’s background color changes back to its original color.

In implementing the reset functionality, don’t try to figure out a color constant that’s used for the window’s original color value. That’s counterproductive because the color might be different on different computers. Instead, retrieve and save the window’s original color and then when the color needs to be reset, use that saved original color value.

Original display:

Buttons Window

Left Blue Reset

After Left button is clicked:

Buttons Window

Left Blue Reset

After Blue button is clicked:

Buttons Window

Left Blue Reset

After Reset button is clicked:

Buttons Window

Left Blue Reset

As always:

· Limit your use of class variables and instance variables – only use them if appropriate.

· Use appropriate modifiers for your methods. The modifiers we’ve discussed are private, public, protected, static, and final.

· Use helping methods if appropriate.

· Mimic the sample session precisely. In particular, note the window’s title, the window’s size, and the positions of components

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JAVA GUI Prog7.java with detailed comments

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JAVA - GUI

Prog7.java

Write a program that tests the user’s ability to memorize a sequence of colors. As shown in the sample session, the program starts off by displaying a dialog box with a list of colors that are to be memorized – red, white, yellow, green, and blue. The user then enters the colors one at a time in a text box. If the user makes a mistake, the program prints a “Sorry” message. If the user correctly enters all the colors, the program prints a “Congratulations” message. Note that when the sorry or congratulations message is printed, the window’s original components get cleared away.

As always, you are required to write elegant code. In particular, you should avoid hard coding the color values in the interior of your program. You should declare those values one time in an array at the top of the program.

Note:

· Your program should contain a class named Prog7.

· Use a simple FlowLayout layout manager scheme.

· Use an inner class for the listener.



As always:

· Limit your use of class variables and instance variables – use them only if appropriate.

· Use appropriate modifiers for your methods. The modifiers we’ve discussed are private, public, static, and final.

· Use helping methods if appropriate.

· Mimic the sample session precisely. In particular, note the dialog box’s text, the window’s title, and the window’s text.

sample:

The opening dialog box:

Message

How good is your memory?
Try to memorize this color sequence:
red white yellow green blue

ok

After closing the dialog box, here's the main window:

Memory Game

Enter color number 1: red

After pressing enter and then typing the second color:

Memory Game
Enter color number 2: white

After entering all five colors correctly:
Memory Game

Congratulations- your memory is perfect!


Second sample session:

After closing the dialog box and typing the first color:
Memory Game

Enter Color number 1: red

After pressing enter and then typing the second color:
Memory Game

Enter color number 2: black

After pressing enter:

Memory Game

Sorry-wrong color. Eat more antioxidants.JAVA - GUI

Prog7.java

Write a program that tests the user’s ability to memorize a sequence of colors. As shown in the sample session, the program starts off by displaying a dialog box with a list of colors that are to be memorized – red, white, yellow, green, and blue. The user then enters the colors one at a time in a text box. If the user makes a mistake, the program prints a “Sorry” message. If the user correctly enters all the colors, the program prints a “Congratulations” message. Note that when the sorry or congratulations message is printed, the window’s original components get cleared away.

As always, you are required to write elegant code. In particular, you should avoid hard coding the color values in the interior of your program. You should declare those values one time in an array at the top of the program.

Note:

· Your program should contain a class named Prog7.

· Use a simple FlowLayout layout manager scheme.

· Use an inner class for the listener.



As always:

· Limit your use of class variables and instance variables – use them only if appropriate.

· Use appropriate modifiers for your methods. The modifiers we’ve discussed are private, public, static, and final.

· Use helping methods if appropriate.

· Mimic the sample session precisely. In particular, note the dialog box’s text, the window’s title, and the window’s text.

sample:

The opening dialog box:

Message

How good is your memory?
Try to memorize this color sequence:
red white yellow green blue

ok

After closing the dialog box, here's the main window:

Memory Game

Enter color number 1: red

After pressing enter and then typing the second color:

Memory Game
Enter color number 2: white

After entering all five colors correctly:
Memory Game

Congratulations- your memory is perfect!


Second sample session:

After closing the dialog box and typing the first color:
Memory Game

Enter Color number 1: red

After pressing enter and then typing the second color:
Memory Game

Enter color number 2: black

After pressing enter:

Memory Game

Sorry-wrong color. Eat more antioxidants.
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