Statistics Multiple Choice Quiz A++

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1) Which level of measurement is required for the median?
A. Nominal

B. Ratio

C. Ordinal

D. Interval



2) Which level of measurement is required for the mode?
A. Nominal

B. Ratio

C. Ordinal

D. Interval



3) The weighted mean is a special case of the:
A. Mean

B. Geometric mean

C. Median

D. Mode



4) Which of the following is not a requirement of a probability distribution?
A. Equally likely probability of a success.

B. The probability of each outcome is between 0 and 1.
C. Sum of the possible outcomes is 1.00.

D. The outcomes are mutually exclusive.



5) Which of the following is not a requirement of a binomial distribution?
A. A constant probability of success.
B. Equally likely outcomes.

C. Only two possible outcomes.

D. A fixed number of trails.



6) In which of the following distributions is the probability of a success usually small?
A. Binomial

B. All distribution

C. Poisson

D. Hypergeometric





7) The difference between the sample mean and the population mean is called the
A. Population mean.

B. Sampling error.

C. Population standard deviation.
D. Standard error of the mean.



8) In a simple random sample
A. Every Kth item is selected to be in the sample.

B. Every item has a chance to be in the sample.

C. Every item has the same chance to be in the sample.
D. All of these



9) Suppose a population consisted of 20 items. How many different samples of n = 3 are possible?
A. 6840

B. 120

C. 1140

D. 20



10) Which of the following statements is not a characteristic of the t distribution?
A. It is a continuous distribution.

B. Like z there is only one t distribution.
C. It has a mean of 0.

D. It is symmetrical.



11) We wish to develop a confidence interval for the population mean. The shape of the population is not known, but we have a sample of 40 observations. We decide to use the 92% level of confidence. The appropriate value of z is:
A. 1.96

B. 1.75

C. 1.65

D. 2.58



12) A point estimate is
A. Always an estimate of the population mean.
B. Always equal to the population value.

C. An estimate of the population parameter.

D. None of these





) Which of the following is a correct statement about a probability?
A. It may range from 0 to 1.

B. It cannot be reported to more than 1 decimal place.
C. It may assume negative values.

D. It may be greater than 1.



14) Which of the following is not a type of probability?
A. Subjective

B. Relative frequency
C. Classical

D. Independent



15) An experiment is a:
A. Collection of events

B. Always greater than 1.

C. The act of taking a measurement or the observation of some activity.
D. Collection of outcomes.




16) A nominal scale variable is
A. Usually the result of counting something.
B. May assume negative values.

C. Cannot have more than two categories.

D. Has a meaningful zero point.



17) The ratio scale of measurement
A. Usually involves ranking.

B. Has a meaningful zero point.

C. Is usually based on counting.

D. Cannot assume negative values.



18) Which of the following statements is true regarding a sample?
A. It is a part of population.

B. It must contain at least five observations.
C. It refers to descriptive statistics

D. All of these are correct




19) Which of the following is a requirement for a two-sample test of proportions.
A. The population standard deviations are equal.
B. Both samples are at least 30.

C. nB and n(1-B) are both greater than 5.

D. Both populations are positively skewed.



20) The alternate hypothesis
A. Is accepted if the null hypothesis is rejected.
B. Tells the value of the sample mean.

C. None of these

D. Will always contain the equal sign.



21) A Type I error is
A. The correct decision

B. A value determined from the test statistic

C. Accepting the null hypothesis when it is false.
D. Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true



22) To conduct a nonparametric test the.
A. Population must follow the normal distribution.

B. The standard deviation must be known.

C. The data must be at least interval scale.

D. It is not necessary to make any assumption about the shape of the population.


23) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the X2
A. Its shape is based on the sample size.

B. It is not negative.

C. It approaches a normal distribution as the degrees of freedom increase.
D. It is positively skewed.



24) In a contingency table
A. The number of rows must be the same as the number of columns.
B. A variable is classified according to two criteria.

C. There must be at least 10 observations in each cell.

D. All of these




25) A dummy variable or indicator variable
A. May assume only a value of 0 or 1.

B. Is another term for the dependent variable.
C. Is equal to Y

D. Is found by (Y - Y).



26) In the ANOVA table the value of k is
A. The number of independent variables.

B. The total number of observations

C. The sum of squares total.

D. The number of degrees of freedom.



27) In a multiple regression equation
A. There is only one dependent variable.

B. The R2 term must be at least .50.

C. All the regression coefficient must be between -1.00 and 1.00.
D. None of these

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FIN/571 Corporate Finance Final Exam Answers

1) Occurs when inaccurate information can falsely exist. A. free-rider problem B. adverse selection C. moral hazard D. The Principle of Valuable Ideas
2) Which principle states that extraordinary returns are achievable with new ideas? A. The Principle of Valuable Ideas B. The Principle of Risk-Return Trade-Off C. The Principle of Incremental Ideas D. The Notional Principle
3) Which of the following statements is true? A. The difference between the value of one action and the value of the best alternative is called an opportunity cost. B. An agent-manager can never make bad decisions. C. A security is a claim issued by a firm that pays owners interest but not dividends. D. A call option analyzes conflicts of interest and behavior in a principal-agent relationship.
4) Generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) refers to A. the extent to which something can be sold for cash quickly and easily without loss of value. B. the length of an asset’s life when it is issued. C. a technical accounting term that encompasses the conventions, rules, and procedures necessary to define accepted accounting practice at a particular time. D. a report issued annually by a firm that includes, at a minimum, an income statement, a balance sheet, a statement of cash flows, and accompanying notes.
5) Remaining maturity refers to: A. the amount of time remaining until its maturity. B. the length of an asset’s life when it is issued. C. a technical accounting term that encompasses the conventions, rules, and procedures necessary to define accepted accounting practice at a particular time. D. a report issued annually by a firm that includes, at a minimum, an income statement, a balance sheet, a statement of cash flows, and accompanying notes.
6) The annual report refers to A. the extent to which something can be sold for cash quickly and easily without loss of value. B. a report issued annually by managers to primarily convey information about select working capital ratios. C. the length of time remaining until an asset’s maturity. D. a report issued annually by a firm that includes, at a minimum, an income statement, a balance sheet, a statement of cash flows, and accompanying notes.
7) The firm’s assets in the balance sheet refer to: A. the extent to which something can be sold for cash quickly and easily without loss of value. B. the productive resources in the firm’s operations. C. the statement of a firm's financial position at one point in time, including its assets and the claims on those assets by creditors (liabilities) and owners (stockholders' equity).
8) Book value (or Net book value) refers to: A. the net amount shown in the accounting statements. B. the length of an asset’s life when it is issued. C. the statement of a firm's financial position at one point in time, including its assets and the claims on those assets by creditors (liabilities) and owners (stockholders' equity). D. the price for which something could be bought or sold in a reasonable length of time, where “reasonable length of time” is defined in terms of the item’s liquidity.
9) Original maturity refers to: A. the net amount (net book value) for something shown in quarterly accounting statements. B. the length of an asset’s life when it is issued. C. a technical accounting term that encompasses the conventions, rules, and procedures necessary to define accepted accounting practice at a particular time. D. the price for which something could be bought or sold in a reasonable length of time, where “reasonable length of time” is defined in terms of the item’s liquidity. FIN/571 Corporate Finance Final Exam Progress: (0/57)
10) Preferred stock payment obligations are typically __________. A. viewed like debt obligations. B. issued with a maturity date. C. valued as an annuity. D. none of these
11) Assume that the par value of a bond is $1,000. Consider a bond where the coupon rate is 9% and the current yield is 10%. Which of the following statements is true? A. The current yield was a lot greater than 9% when the bond was first issued B. The current yield was a lot less than 9% when the bond was first issued C. The market value of the bond is less than $1,000 D. The market value of the bond is more than $1,000
12) If the yield to maturity for a bond is less than the bond's coupon rate, then the market value of the bond is __________. A. less than the par value. B. greater than the par value. C. cannot tell D. equal to the par value.
13) According to the CAPM, the expected return for a portfolio is determined by the portfolio's. A. variance. B. beta. C. standard deviation. D. none of these
14) Certain countries have restrictions. In practice, U.S. investors have NOT invested very much internationally. Possible factors include __________. A. lower transaction costs. B. expropriation risk. C. firm-specific risk. D. all of these
15) Certain countries have restrictions. In practice, U.S. investors have NOT invested very much internationally. Possible factors include __________. A. non-listing of foreign securities on U.S. stock exchanges. B. foreign tax considerations. C. efficiency in converting currencies. D. all of these
16) Dimensions of risk include ___________. A. the certainty of a negative outcome B. uncertainty about the future outcome C. uncertainty about yesterday’s outcome D. the impossibility of the same return
17) One problem with using negative values for w1 (the proportion invested in the riskless asset) to represent a borrowed amount is that the implied borrowing rate of interest is the same as __________. A. the current rate of interest B. the prime rate of interest C. the nominal rate of interest D. the lending rate of interest
18) The Principle of __________ implies that the expected return for an asset equals its required return. A. Risk-Return Trade-Off B. Capital Market Efficiency C. Signaling D. Comparative Advantage FIN/571 Corporate Finance Final Exam Progress: (0/57)
19) __________ says to calculate the incremental after-tax cash flows connected with working capital decisions. A. The Principle of Incremental Benefits B. The Signaling Principle C. The Options Principle D. The Principle of Time Value of Money
20) Stony Products has an inventory conversion period (ICP) of about 60.83 days. The receivables collection period (RCP) is 36.50 days. The payables deferral period (PDP) is about 30.42 days. What is Stony's cash conversion cycle (CCC)? A. about 69 days B. about 66 days C. about 67 days D. about 68 days
21) Stony Products has a payables turnover of six times. What is Stony's payables deferral period (PDP)? A. about 30.42 days B. about 56.50 days C. about 60.83 days D. none of these
22) Firms make short-term financial decisions just about every day solving such questions as __________. A. Where should we borrow? B. Where should we invest our cash? C. How much liquidity should we have? D. all of these
23) __________ says to calculate the incremental after-tax cash flows connected with working capital decisions. A. The Options Principle B. The Signaling Principle C. The Principle of Incremental Benefits D. The Principle of Time Value of Money
24) Main sources of short-term funds include __________. A. trade credit and commercial paper B. futures and bank loans C. bonds and trade credit D. none of these
25) Which of the following statements is (are) true? A. The "dating 120" or the "60 extra" mean that the clock does not start until 120 or 60 days after the invoice date. B. Prox or proximate refers to the next month. C. Invoices with "10th prox" must be paid by the 10th of the next month. D. all of these
26) Which (if any) of the following statements is false? A. The invoice is a written statement about goods that were ordered, along with their prices and the payment dates. In other words, the invoice is simply the bill for purchases. B. For the 4/10, net 40 credit terms, you are offering a total credit period of 30 days from the date of the invoice, a discount period of 10 days, and a 4% discount if paid on or before the discount period expires. C. When a firm is using invoice billing, the invoice that accompanies shipment is a separate bill to be paid. D. none of these
27) Most credit sales are made on an open account basis, which means __________. A. that suppliers cannot dictate the terms of the purchase. B. that customers simply purchase what they want. C. that suppliers dictate the terms of the purchase. D. that customers cannot simply purchase what they want. FIN/571 Corporate Finance Final Exam Progress: (0/57)
28) An all-equity-financed firm would __________. A. pay corporate income taxes if its taxable income is positive. B. not pay any income taxes because interest would exactly offset its taxable income. C. pay corporate income taxes because it would have interest expense. D. not pay corporate income taxes because it would have no interest expense.
29) A profitable firm would __________. A. pay corporate income taxes because it would have interest expense. B. pay corporate income taxes because it would not have interest expense. C. pay corporate income taxes if it had a positive taxable income. D. none of these
30) An investor's risky portfolio is made up of individual stocks. Which of the following statements about this portfolio is true? A. Each stock in the portfolio will have a beta greater than one. B. Each stock in the portfolio has its own beta. C. Selling any stock in this portfolio will lower the beta of the portfolio. D. An investor cannot change the risk of this portfolio by her choice about personal leverage (lending or borrowing).
31) Boeing Corporation is a world leader in commercial aircraft. In the face of competition, Boeing often faces a critical __________ decision: whether to develop a new generation of passenger aircraft. A. dividend B. present value C. payback D. capital budgeting
32) The capital budgeting process can be broken down into five steps. These steps include which of the following? A. Generate ideas for capital budgeting projects B. Prepare proposals C. Review existing projects and facilities D. all of these
33) There are two important tax considerations for a capital budgeting project. These include which (if any) of the following? A. It is indeed cash flow that’s irrelevant. B. The standard cash flow estimation does not explicitly identify the financing costs. C. The Principle of Incremental Benefits reminds us that it is the incremental cash flow that’s relevant. D. none of these
34) The __________ method breaks down when evaluating projects in which the sign of the cash flow changes. A. Payback B. NPV C. PI D. IRR
35) Whenever projects are both independent and conventional, then the IRR and NPV methods agree. Which of the following statements is true? A. A mutually exclusive project is one that can be chosen independently of other projects. B. When undertaking one project prevents investing in another project, and vice versa, the projects are said to have a positive payback. C. A conventional project is a project with an initial cash outflow that is followed by one or more expected future cash inflows. D. all of these
36) In practice, the __________ rule is preferred. A. PI B. NPV C. IRR D. Payback FIN/571 Corporate Finance Final Exam Progress: (0/57)
37) Studies show systematic differences in capital structures across industries. These are due mostly to differences in __________. A. accounting practices. B. the firm’s inventory turnover ratio. C. the ability of assets to support borrowing. D. management’s attitude toward what other industries are doing.
38) Studies show systematic differences in capital structures across industries. These are due mostly to differences in the availability of tax shelter provided by things other than debt, such as __________. A. accelerated depreciation. B. operating tax loss carryforwards. C. investment tax credit. D. all of these
39) Studies show systematic differences in capital structures across industries. These are due mostly to differences in __________. A. hiring and firing practices. B. the availability of tax shelter provided by things other than debt, such as accelerated depreciation, investment tax credit, and operating tax loss carryforwards. C. what the arbitrage pricing theory tells us. D. none of these
40) There can be a variety of motives for stock repurchases including __________. A. a buyback of overvalued stock. B. an increase in leverage. C. a decrease in anticipated earnings. D. all of these
41) Some countries have __________ in which shareholders' returns are not fully taxed twice. A. an imputation tax system B. a split tax system C. a two-tier tax system D. none of these
42) There can be a variety of motives for stock repurchases including __________. A. a decrease in leverage. B. a buyback of undervalued stock. C. a decrease in anticipated earnings. D. all of these
43) Mortgage bonds are __________. A. secured by a lien on general assets of the issuer B. secured by a lien on specific assets of the issuer C. usually secured by assets such as common shares of one of the issuer's subsidiaries D. none of these
44) Conditional sales contracts __________. A. are seldom issued to finance the purchase of aircraft B. are similar to equipment trust certificates C. enable the borrower to obtain title to the assets only before it fully repays the debt D. all of these
45) The Time Value of Money Principle says __________. A. to look for the most advantageous ways to finance the firm, such as the lowest-cost debt alternative B. to use discounted cash flow analysis to compare the costs and benefits of financing decisions, such as alternative securities to sell, lease versus borrow and buy, and bond refunding C. to set a price and other terms that investors will find acceptable when issuing securities D. that announcing the firm's decision to issue securities conveys information about the firm
46) __________ says to look for opportunities to develop asset-based financing arrangements that offer new positive-NPV financing mechanisms. A. The Principle of Valuable Ideas B. The Time Value of Money Principle C. The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior D. The Principle of Comparative Advantage
47) The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior says __________. A. to calculate the net advantage of leasing based on the incremental after-tax benefits that leasing will provide. B. to look for profitable opportunities to lease (or rent) an asset, rather than borrow and buy it. C. to use discounted cash flow analysis to compare the costs and benefits of leasing, relative to the alternative of borrowing and buying. D. that leasing transfers the tax benefits of ownership from the lessee to the lessor.
48) __________ says to transfer the tax benefits of ownership to other parties if they are willing to pay for benefits your firm cannot use. A. The Principle of Two-Sided Transactions B. The Principle of Incremental Benefits C. The Principle of Comparative Advantage D. The Capital Market Efficiency Principle FIN/571 Corporate Finance Final Exam Progress: (0/57)
49) The wholesale price for Captain John’s is $1.00 per loaf, and the variable cost of production is $0.50 per loaf. Captain John’s is expecting that expansion will allow them to sell an additional 5.0 million loaves in the next year. What additional revenues minus expenses will be generated from expansion? A. $25,000 B. $250,000 C. $550,000 D. none of these
50) The wholesale price for Captain John’s is $0.612 per loaf, and the variable cost of production is $0.387 per loaf. Captain John’s is expecting that expansion will allow them to sell an additional 4.5 million loaves in the next five years. What additional revenues minus expenses will be generated from expansion? A. $1,102,000 B. $912,500 C. $1,012,500 D. $1,000,500
51) The wholesale price for Captain John’s is $3.00 per loaf. One million loaves will be sold in the next year. What is the contribution margin? A. cannot tell B. $3.00 C. $3,000,000 D. $3,000,000 minus fixed costs
52) Which of the following statements is true? A. Soft capital rationing refers to the rationing imposed externally by limited funds for borrowing from outside sources. B. Hard capital rationing refers to the rationing imposed internally by the firm. C. A post audit is a set of procedures for evaluating a capital budgeting decision after the fact. D. all of these
53) Pursuing valuable ideas is the best way __________. A. to avoid risk. B. to achieve extraordinary returns. C. to restrain your spending. D. to get yourself in trouble.
54) In efficient markets, as in the United States, you should think long and hard before you conclude that a market price is __________. A. wrong. B. fair. C. followed by many analysts. D. all of these
55) __________ says to forecast the firm’s cash flows, and analyze the incremental cash flows of alternative decisions. A. The Principle of Risk-Return Trade-Off B. The Signaling Principle C. The Principle of Incremental Benefits D. The Time Value of Money Principle
56) ___________ says to use both bottom-up and top-down processes to increase the chance of uncovering valuable ideas. A. The Principle of Valuable Ideas B. The Behavioral Principle C. The Principle of Two-Sided Transactions D. The Principle of Comparative Advantage
57) __________ says to use common industry practices as a good starting place for the planning process. A. The Behavioral Principle B. The Principle of Incremental Benefits C. The Principle of Self-Interested Behavior D. The Principle of Valuable Ideas
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Download Five Set of final exams + Whole Course all 6 weeks

Select a process that you perform daily but would like to spend less time doing, such as driving to work

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Design a Flowchart for a Process
• Select a process that you perform daily but would like to spend less time doing, such as driving to work. Pick a process which (a) is personal to your daily activities (and not dependent on corporate data or complex organization workflows) and (b) can be broken down into a number of individual activities which can easily be measured (time, output, etc.). Note: Be sure to identify a process and collect data that will be both meaningful and manageable for the Week Five assignment.
• Design a flowchart using a Microsoft Office tool (e.g .PowerPoint, Visio).
• Comment on the factors that affect the process design.
• Identify at least one metric to measure the process.
• Submit your flowchart for the process.
• Begin collecting data for the identified metric every day of the workweek. You must submit the data collected at the end of each week.
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Week six OPS/571 Operation Management Process Design for Riordan Manufacturing

NOTE: PLEASE RE-WORD THIS TUTORIAL TO AVOID PLAGIARISM

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Operation Management Process Design for Riordan Manufacturing. Create a 1,050-word (maximum) proposal package for Riordan in which you include the following items in the proposal:

· The MRP for the manufacturing of the Riordan electric fans

· A new process design for the production of the Riordan electric fans

· A supply chain for the electric fans, taking advantage of any global opportunities available to Riordan Manufacturing such as lower labor costs

· A production forecast for the Riordan electric fans

· An implementation plan, including a Gantt chart of the design process, for the Riordan electric fans

· A cover letter detailing how you will coordinate aggregate operations planning and TQM for the Riordan electric fans

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Final quiz for Quantitative Methods

Final quiz for Quantitative Methods -- Download Full Solution : Click HERE
1.
A sample of eight observations of variables x and y is shown below:
x 5 3 7 9 2 4 6 8
y 20 23 15 11 27 21 17 14
Find the value of coefficient of correlation, r.
(Points: 6)
- 0.991
0.872
- 0.512
0.942


2. The largest value in a set of data is 160, and the smallest value is 70. If the resulting frequency distribution is to have six classes of equal width, what will be the class interval? (Points: 6)
15
6
12
5


3. Chebyshev�s Theorem states that the percentage of observations in a data set that should fall within five standard deviations of their mean is: (Points: 6)
90%
at least 90%
96%
at least 96%
25%


4.
The salaries (in thousands of dollars) for a sample of 13 employees of a firm are: 26.5, 23.5, 29.7, 24.8, 21.1, 24.3, 20.4, 22.7, 27.2, 23.7, 24.1, 24.8, and 28.2.
Compute the variance of the salaries.
(Points: 6)
2.562
6.125
9.223
7.097


5. A monthly report to the Texas Department of Health, division of Water Hygiene, contained the following water production data in thousands of gallons:
5263 5636 5264 4395 6090 5293 4668 5725 5171 4378
5118 5538 4838 5167 5119 5438 6843 5262 4653 5303
5913 4570 5142 5964 6431 4719 5358 6043 4554 5805


What is the value of the interquartile range. The values are rounded (no decimal values included). (Points: 6)
A) 937
B) 752
C) 886
D) 912


6. Six candidates for a new position of vice-president for academic affairs have been selected. Three of the candidates are female. The candidates� years of experience are as follows.
Candidate Experience
Female 1
Female 2
Female 3
Male 1
Male 2
Male 3 5
9
11
6
4
8
Suppose one of the candidates is selected at random. Define the following events:

A = person selected has 9 years experience
B = person selected is a female

Find P(A / B). (Points: 6)
A) 0.4552
B) 0.333
C) 0.581
D) 0.418


7. For a normally distributed random variable, the average price for a bushel of soybeans is $6.20 with a standard deviation of $0.20.

For what proportion of outcomes will the price be between $6.10 and $6.30? (Points: 6)
A) 0.2015
B) 0.4458
C) 0.3252
D) 0.3830


8. A pharmaceutical company interested in measuring how often physicians prescribe a certain drug has selected a simple random sample from each of two groups: M.D. (medical doctors) and D.O (osteopathic doctors). What is this type of sampling called? (Points: 6)
Simple random sampling
Cluster sampling
Stratified sampling
Purposive sampling


9.
The odds in favor of an event are the number of successes divided by the number of failures. The probability of this event occurring is the number of successes divided by the sum of the number of successes and the number of failures. The number of successes is five and the number of failures is four.
Find the odds in favor of success.
(Points: 6)
5 to 9
4 to 9
5 to 4
4 to 5


10. Approximately 14 percent of the population of Arizona is 65 years or older. A random sample of five persons from this population is taken. The probability that less than 2 of the 5 are 65 years or older is (Points: 6)
0.8533
0.1467
0.4704
0.3829

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11. In the past, young women drivers have maintained a better driving record than young men drivers. An insurance company is concerned with the driving record of its insured customers. Specifically, it conducts a test for the number of speeding tickets received during the past year by drivers between the ages of 18 and 25.
Men Women
n1= 120 n2= 85
1= 1.2
2 = 0.4

s21 = 24.8 s22 = 10.6
A test for the equality of average number of tickets per driver for the two groups is desired.
Use = 0.01.
Calculate the p-value for this test.
(Points: 6)
A) 0.3395
B) 0.2015
C) 0.1646
D) 0.4561


12. Given an infinite population with a mean of 75 and a standard deviation of 12, the probability that the mean of a sample of 36 observations, taken at random from this population, exceeds 78 is (Points: 6)
0.4332
0.0668
0.0987
0.9013


13. A producer of a juice drink advertises that it contains 10% real fruit juices. A sample of 75 bottles of the drink is analyzed and the percent of real fruit juices is found to be 6.5%. If the true proportion is actually 0.10, what is the probability that the sample percent will be 6.5% or less? (Points: 6)
0.7211
0.1562
0.5488
0.8325


14. The security department of a state university is planning its budget for the next year. In estimating the man-hours for security during university sponsored music concerts, the average length of music concerts is needed. A random sample from thirty-six security departments at universities was taken and the sample mean length of concerts was 160 minutes. Suppose the population standard deviation is 45 minutes. A 95 percent confidence interval for the true mean duration of music concerts is: (Points: 6)
157.55 to 162.45
147.63 to 172.37
71.8 to 248.2
145.3 to 174.7


15. Based on sample data, the 90% confidence interval limits for the population mean are 170.86 and 195.42. If the 10% level of significance was used in testing the hypotheses : =201, : 201, the null hypothesis: (Points: 6)

would be rejected


would not be rejected


would have to be revised


None of the above



16. Suppose that 9 observations are drawn from a normal population whose standard deviation is 2. The observations are: 15, 9, 13, 11, 8, 12, 11, 7, and 10. At 95% confidence, you want to determine whether the mean of the population from which this sample was taken is significantly different from 10.

Compute the value of the test statistic and interpret the result. (Points: 6)
A) Z= 1.5; reject H0
B) Z =1.0; fail to reject H0
C) Z=1.0; reject H0
D) Z= 1.5; fail to reject


17.
Consider the following data values of variables x and y:
x 97 113 81 68 90 79
y 103 103 105 115 127 104
Use Excel to perform a regression analysis on the data. What is the regression equation?
(Points: 6)
A) Y = 12 � 1.54 X
B) Y = 83 + 38.28 X
C) Y= 125 � 0.173 X
D) Y = 98 + 0.115 X


18. The number of degrees of freedom associated with the t test, when the data are gathered from a matched pairs experiment with 13 pairs, is: (Points: 6)
13
26
12
24


19. One-way ANOVA is performed on three independent samples with: = 6, = 7, and = 8. The critical value obtained from the F-table for this test at the 2.5% level of significance equals: (Points: 6)
3.55
39.45
4.56
29.45


20. A multiple regression analysis includes 25 data points and 4 independent variables results in SST = 200 and SSR = 150. The multiple standard error of estimate will be: (Points: 6)
1.333
6.124
2.500
1.581


21. Membership on a stock exchange for five years is given below:
Year Members
1996 520
1997 510
1998 505
1999 508
2000 512
Use the exponential smoothing procedure to obtain estimates of the trend (this is not the logarithm approach here).
Set the smoothed value for 1996 equal to the actual and use a smoothing constant,
α = 0.4. Compute the forecasted value for 2000.
(Points: 6)
A) 510.896
B) 437.246
C) 635.324
D) 310.775


22. The upsurge in school supply sales in the fall of each year is an example of the: (Points: 6)

irregular component.


trend component.


seasonal component.


cyclical component.



23. When the purpose of sampling is to detect when a process becomes too variable, the chart of choice will be a c-chart. Is it true or false? (Points: 6)
True
False


24. Forty samples of size 1,000 were drawn from a manufacturing process and the number of defectives in each sample was counted. The mean sample proportion was 0.05. The centerline for the p chart is: (Points: 6)
0.05
50.0
2.00
25.0


25. A Type II error is defined as: (Points: 6)

rejecting a true null hypothesis


rejecting a false null hypothesis


failing to reject a true null hypothesis

failing to reject a false null hypothesis

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13-45 Variable and Absorption Costing Chan Manufacturing Company data

13-45 Variable and Absorption Costing
Chan Manufacturing Company data for 20X7 follow:
Sales: 12,000 units at $17 each
Actual production 15,000 units
Expected volume of production 18,000 units
Manufacturing costs incurred
Variable $120,000
Fixed 63,000
Nonmanufacturing costs incurred
Variable $ 24,000
Fixed 18,000

1. Determine operating income for 20X7, assuming the firm uses the variable-costing approach to product costing. (Do not prepare a statement.)

2. Assume that there is no January 1, 20X7, inventory; no variances are allocated to inventory; and the firm uses a “full absorption” approach to product costing. Compute (a) the cost assigned to December 31, 20X7, inventory; and (b) operating income for the year ended December 31, 20X7. (Do not prepare a statement.)

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Write a complete program named Buttons that implements a window with three buttons – left, blue, and reset.

Write a complete program named Buttons that implements a window with three buttons – left, blue, and reset. When the left button is clicked, the window’s contents (the three buttons) shifts left. When the blue button is clicked, the window’s background color changes to blue. When the reset button is clicked, the window’s contents shifts back to the original center alignment and the window’s background color changes back to its original color.

In implementing the reset functionality, don’t try to figure out a color constant that’s used for the window’s original color value. That’s counterproductive because the color might be different on different computers. Instead, retrieve and save the window’s original color and then when the color needs to be reset, use that saved original color value.

Original display:

Buttons Window

Left Blue Reset

After Left button is clicked:

Buttons Window

Left Blue Reset

After Blue button is clicked:

Buttons Window

Left Blue Reset

After Reset button is clicked:

Buttons Window

Left Blue Reset

As always:

· Limit your use of class variables and instance variables – only use them if appropriate.

· Use appropriate modifiers for your methods. The modifiers we’ve discussed are private, public, protected, static, and final.

· Use helping methods if appropriate.

· Mimic the sample session precisely. In particular, note the window’s title, the window’s size, and the positions of components

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JAVA GUI Prog7.java with detailed comments

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JAVA - GUI

Prog7.java

Write a program that tests the user’s ability to memorize a sequence of colors. As shown in the sample session, the program starts off by displaying a dialog box with a list of colors that are to be memorized – red, white, yellow, green, and blue. The user then enters the colors one at a time in a text box. If the user makes a mistake, the program prints a “Sorry” message. If the user correctly enters all the colors, the program prints a “Congratulations” message. Note that when the sorry or congratulations message is printed, the window’s original components get cleared away.

As always, you are required to write elegant code. In particular, you should avoid hard coding the color values in the interior of your program. You should declare those values one time in an array at the top of the program.

Note:

· Your program should contain a class named Prog7.

· Use a simple FlowLayout layout manager scheme.

· Use an inner class for the listener.



As always:

· Limit your use of class variables and instance variables – use them only if appropriate.

· Use appropriate modifiers for your methods. The modifiers we’ve discussed are private, public, static, and final.

· Use helping methods if appropriate.

· Mimic the sample session precisely. In particular, note the dialog box’s text, the window’s title, and the window’s text.

sample:

The opening dialog box:

Message

How good is your memory?
Try to memorize this color sequence:
red white yellow green blue

ok

After closing the dialog box, here's the main window:

Memory Game

Enter color number 1: red

After pressing enter and then typing the second color:

Memory Game
Enter color number 2: white

After entering all five colors correctly:
Memory Game

Congratulations- your memory is perfect!


Second sample session:

After closing the dialog box and typing the first color:
Memory Game

Enter Color number 1: red

After pressing enter and then typing the second color:
Memory Game

Enter color number 2: black

After pressing enter:

Memory Game

Sorry-wrong color. Eat more antioxidants.JAVA - GUI

Prog7.java

Write a program that tests the user’s ability to memorize a sequence of colors. As shown in the sample session, the program starts off by displaying a dialog box with a list of colors that are to be memorized – red, white, yellow, green, and blue. The user then enters the colors one at a time in a text box. If the user makes a mistake, the program prints a “Sorry” message. If the user correctly enters all the colors, the program prints a “Congratulations” message. Note that when the sorry or congratulations message is printed, the window’s original components get cleared away.

As always, you are required to write elegant code. In particular, you should avoid hard coding the color values in the interior of your program. You should declare those values one time in an array at the top of the program.

Note:

· Your program should contain a class named Prog7.

· Use a simple FlowLayout layout manager scheme.

· Use an inner class for the listener.



As always:

· Limit your use of class variables and instance variables – use them only if appropriate.

· Use appropriate modifiers for your methods. The modifiers we’ve discussed are private, public, static, and final.

· Use helping methods if appropriate.

· Mimic the sample session precisely. In particular, note the dialog box’s text, the window’s title, and the window’s text.

sample:

The opening dialog box:

Message

How good is your memory?
Try to memorize this color sequence:
red white yellow green blue

ok

After closing the dialog box, here's the main window:

Memory Game

Enter color number 1: red

After pressing enter and then typing the second color:

Memory Game
Enter color number 2: white

After entering all five colors correctly:
Memory Game

Congratulations- your memory is perfect!


Second sample session:

After closing the dialog box and typing the first color:
Memory Game

Enter Color number 1: red

After pressing enter and then typing the second color:
Memory Game

Enter color number 2: black

After pressing enter:

Memory Game

Sorry-wrong color. Eat more antioxidants.
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Modify the Inventory Program so the application can handle multiple items. Use an array to store the items A ++ (PART 1 TO 6)

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Modify the Inventory Program so the application can handle multiple items. Use an array to store the items. The output should display the information one product at a time,
including the item number, the name of the product, the number of units in stock, the price of each unit, and the value of the inventory of that product. In addition, the output should display the value of the entire inventory.
Create a method to calculate the value of the entire inventory.
Create another method to sort the array items by the name of the product.

2) Modify the Inventory Program by creating a subclass of the product class that uses one additional unique feature of the product you chose (for the DVDs subclass, you could use
movie title, for example). In the subclass, create a method to calculate the value of the inventory of a product with the same name as the method previously created for the
product class. The subclass method should also add a 5% restocking fee to the value of the inventory of that product.
Modify the output to display this additional feature you have chosen and the restocking fee.

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Modern Auditing 8th Edition 11-6 a 11-8 11-9 13-8

11-6 a. Briefly describe three strategies for testing internal controls when information technology is used for significant accounting processing. b. Identify two strategies that might be used to support a low control risk assessment. Discuss the difference between the two strategies. c. Discuss a third audit strategy that might be used to assess control risk at a high level. Explain why this strategy will not support a low control risk assessment. 11-8 What are the advantages and disadvantages of the computer-assisted audit technique known as parallel simulation? 11-9 a. What is the difference between the conventional test data approach and the integrated test facility approach? b. In lieu of traditional testing, what approaches can be used in on-line entry/on-line processing systems? 13-8 List the steps involved in selecting and evaluating a nonstatistical or a statistical sample for tests of controls. Identify the professional judgments that must be made associated

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Modern Auditing 8th Edition

MODERN AUDITING

ASSURANCE SERVICES AND THE

INTEGRITY OF FINANCIAL REPORTING

EIGHTH EDITION

William C. Boynton

Raymond N. Johnson

John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

Seth Bullock, the owner of Bullock Gold Mining, is evaluating a new gold mine in South Dakota.

Seth Bullock, the owner of Bullock Gold Mining, is evaluating a new gold mine in South Dakota. Dan Dority, the company’s geologist, has just finished his analysis of the mine site. He has estimated that the mine would be productive for eight years, after which the gold would be completely mined. Dan has taken an estimate of the gold deposits to Alma Garrett, the company’s financial officer. Alma has been asked by Seth to perform an analysis of the new mine and present her recommendation on whether the company should open the new mine. Alma has used estimates provided by Dan to determine the revenues that could be expected from the mine. She has also projected the expense of opening the mine and the annual operating expenses. If the company opens the mine, it will cost $500 million today, and it will have a cash outflow of $80 million nine years from today in costs associated with closing the mine and reclaiming the area surrounding it. The expected cash flows each year from the mine are shown in the following table. Bullock Mining has a 12 percent required return on all of its gold mines. Year Cash Flow 0 -$500,000,000 1 60,000,000 2 90,000,000 3 170,000,000 4 230,000,000 5 205,000,000 6 140,000,000 7 110,000,000 8 70,000,000 9 -80,000,000

1. Construct a spreadsheet to calculate the payback period, internal rate of return, modified internal rate of return, and net present value of the proposed mine.

2. Based on your analysis, should the company open the mine?

DOES NOT INCLUDE 3rd QUESTION.

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Modify the Payroll Program so that it uses a class to store and retrieve the employee's name, the hourly rate, and the number of hours worked

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Modify the Payroll Program so that it uses a class to store and retrieve the employee's
name, the hourly rate, and the number of hours worked. Use a constructor to initialize the
employee information, and a method within that class to calculate the weekly pay. Once
stop is entered as the employee name, the application should terminate.

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A time series is a collection of data recorded over a period of time, usually monthly, quarterly, or yearly

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T F 1. A time series is a collection of data recorded over a period of time, usually monthly, quarterly, or yearly.

T F 2. Long-term forecasts are usually from one year to more than 10 years into the future.

T F 3. One component of a time series is the secular trend that is the smooth movement of a series over a short period of time, such as a few months or quarters.

T F 4. Episodic and residual variations can be projected into the future.

T F 5. In a time series analysis, the letter ''a'' in the linear trend equation, is the value of Y' when t = 0.

T F 6. In the linear trend equation, t is any value that corresponds with a time period, i.e., month or quarter.

T F 7. If the sales, production or other data over a period of time tend to approximate a straight-line trend, the equation developed by the least squares method cannot be used to forecast sales for a future period.

T F 8. The trend component of a time series is obtained my minimizing the sum of the squares of the errors.

MULTIPLE CHOICES

9- Economic periods of prosperity followed by recession are described as:

A. Secular trend
B. Seasonal variation
C. Cyclical variation
D. Erratic variation

10- What is variation within a year, such as high sales at Christmas and Easter and low sales in January, called?

A. Secular trend
B. Seasonal variation
C. Cyclical variation
D. Variation

11- The following linear trend equation was developed for annual sales from 1995 to 2001 with 1995 the base or zero year. Y’ = 500 + 60t (in $thousands). What are the estimated sales for 2005 (in $ thousands)?

A. $ 500
B. $ 560
C. $1,040
D. $1,100

12- The following linear trend equation was developed for the annual sales of the Jordan Manufacturing Company. Y’ = 500 + 60t (in $ thousands).
How much are sales increasing by?

A. $ 60,000 per year
B. $ 6,000 per month

13- lf the least squares equation for sales data going from 1996 to 2001 is Y' = 10 + 1.3t (in $ millions), what is the value of t and the forecast for 2002?

A. t = 6, y = 17.8

B. t = 0, y = 10.0

C. t = 7, y = 19.1

D. t = 10, y = 0.0

14- If the exports (in $ millions) for the period 1997 through 2001 were $878, $892, $864, $870 and $912 respectively, what are these values called?

A. Moving average

B. Linear trend equation

C. Logarithmic trend equation

D. Time series

15- What is the long-term behavior of a variable over an extended period of time called?

A. Secular trend

B. Seasonal variation

C. Cyclical variation

D. Irregular or erratic variation

16- Why are long range predictions considered essential to managing a firm?

A. To develop plans for possible new plants

B. To have raw materials available for future demand

C. To develop plans for future financing

D. To have enough staffer future needs

E. All of the above

17- In the linear trend equation, how is the average change in the dependent variable represented for every unit change in time?

A. a

B. b

C. l

D. Y'

18- For a time series beginning with 1988 and extending up to 2001, which year would be coded with a one when using the coded method?

A. 1986

B. 1988

C. 1989

D. 1998

19- For an annual time series extending from 1993 through 2001, how many years would be lost in a three year moving average?

A. 2 at the start and 1 at the end

B. 1 at the start and 1 at the end

C. 2 at the start and 0 at the end

D. 0 at the start and 2 at the end

20- Given a linear time series trend, Y' = 5.2 + 3.1t, what is the forecast for 2002 if the time series started in 1995?

A. 23.8

B. 26.9

C. 30.0

D. 21.7

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Managerial Accounting4th Editionby James Jiambalvo Answered A++

1. (TCO 1) A difference between actual costs and planned costs (Points: 4) should be investigated if the amount is exceptional. indicates that the planned cost was poorly estimated. indicates that the manager is doing a poor job. should be ignored unless it involves the cost of ingredients.

2. (TCO 1) A company has a cost that is $2.00 per unit at a volume of 12,000 units and $2.00 per unit at a volume of 16,000 units. What type of cost is this? (Points: 4) Fixed Variable Sunk Incremental

3. (TCO 2) Ice Box Company manufactures refrigerators. Which of the following items is most likely to be an indirect material cost for Ice Box Company? (Points: 4) Factory supervisor’s salary Lubricant for refrigerator door hinges Glass shelves for the refrigerators Refrigerator motors

4. (TCO 2) A form used to accumulate the cost of producing an item is called a(n) (Points: 4) job-cost sheet material requisition balance sheet invoice

5. (TCO 3) Why is it necessary to compute equivalent units separately for materials and conversion costs? (Points: 4) Mistakes are made in the accounting for these costs Materials and conversion enter the production process at different rates Conversion costs are more difficult to estimate None of the above reasons are true 0

6. (TCO 3) In the assembly department, all the direct materials are added at the beginning of the processing. Beginning Work in Process inventory consists of 2,000 units with a direct materials cost of $31,860. During the period, 15,000 units are started and direct materials costing $250,000 are charged to the department. If there are 1,000 units in ending inventory, what is the cost per equivalent unit? (Points: 4) $15.93 $15.63 $14.83 $16.58

7. (TCO 4) Regression analysis (Points: 4) uses all the available data points to estimate a cost equation can be performed by many spreadsheet programs provides an equation that can be used to estimate total costs at different levels all of the above

8. (TCO 4) Beaudreaux Motors is operating at its break-even point of 16,000 units. Which of the following statements is not true? (Points: 4) The amount of the company’s total costs equals the amount of its revenues. The company’s fixed costs equal its variable costs. The company’s profit equals zero. Assuming no other changes, if the company sold more units, it would earn a profit.

9. (TCO 5) Which of the following is treated as a product cost in full costing? (Points: 4) Sales commissions Administrative salaries Factory supervisor Security at corporate headquarters

10. (TCO 5) When the number of units sold is equal to the number of units produced, net income using full costing will be (Points: 4) greater than net income under variable costing equal to net income using variable costing less than income using variable costing none of the above

1. (TCO 6) A major problem with cost-plus contracts is that they (Points: 4) are not acceptable under GAAP. cause the supplier to take significant financial risks. require the supplier to use variable costing. create an incentive to allocate as much cost as possible to the goods produced under the cost-plus contract.

12. (TCO 6) Which of the following steps is not involved in the ABC approach? (Points: 4) Identify activities which cause costs to be incurred. Allocate costs to products based on activity usage. Group costs of activities into cost pools. Improve processes based on benchmarking

13. (TCO 7) Which of the following is not a term used to describe the additional costs incurred as a result of selecting one decision over another? (Points: 4) Differential costs Sunk costs Relevant costs Incremental costs

1. (TCO 7) Common costs (Points: 4) are fixed costs that are not directly traceable to an individual product line. normally not avoidable. Both A and B are true. Neither A nor B is true.

2. (TCO 8) Activity based pricing seeks to (Points: 4) customers with the costs they are creating. make greater profits by charging all customers more. maintain all customers in the customer base. all of the above.

3. (TCO 8) Which of the following should be true in order for a company to accept a special order? (Points: 4) Variable costs are less than fixed costs Incremental revenues exceed incremental costs Opportunity costs are zero The order is for a current customer

4. (TCO 9) Present value techniques (Points: 4) ignore cash flows that will occur more than ten years in the future. are a way of converting future dollars into equivalent current dollars.

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The SEC relies on the AICPA and FASB to regulate the accounting profession and develop and enforce accounting standards.

1. The SEC relies on the AICPA and FASB to regulate the accounting profession and develop and enforce accounting standards.

2. Currently, both U.S. GAAP and the International Financial Reporting Standards are acceptable for international use.

3. An effective capital allocation process
a. promotes productivity.
b. encourages innovation.
c. provides an efficient market for buying and selling securities.
d. all of these.

4. Members of the Financial Accounting Standards Board are
a. employed by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA).
b. part-time employees.
c. required to hold a CPA certificate.
d. independent of any other organization.

5. Financial accounting standard-setting in the United States
a. can be described as a social process which reflects political actions of various interested user groups as well as a product of research and logic.
b. is based solely on research and empirical findings.
c. is a legalistic process based on rules promulgated by governmental agencies.
d. is democratic in the sense that a majority of accountants must agree with a standard before it becomes enforceable.

6. The idea of consistency does not mean that companies cannot switch from one accounting method to another.

7. Revenues are realizable when assets received or held are readily convertible into cash or claims to cash.

8. Companies consider only quantitative factors in determining whether an item is material.

9. In the conceptual framework for financial reporting, what provides "the why"--the goals and purposes of accounting?
a. Measurement and recognition concepts such as assumptions, principles, and constraints
b. Qualitative characteristics of accounting information
c. Elements of financial statements
d. Objectives of financial reporting





10. Which of the following is an implication of the going concern assumption?
a. The historical cost principle is credible.
b. Depreciation and amortization policies are justifiable and appropriate.
c. The current-noncurrent classification of assets and liabilities is justifiable and signify-cant.
d. All of these.

11. Under current GAAP, inflation is ignored in accounting due to the
a. economic entity assumption.
b. going concern assumption.
c. monetary unit assumption.
d. periodicity assumption.

12. The allowance for doubtful accounts, which appears as a deduction from accounts receivable on a balance sheet and which is based on an estimate of bad debts, is an application of the
a. consistency characteristic.
b. matching principle.
c. materiality constraint.
d. revenue recognition principle.

13. The book value of any depreciable asset is the difference between its cost and its salvage value.

14. Why are certain costs of doing business capitalized when incurred and then depreciated or amortized over subsequent accounting cycles?
a. To reduce the federal income tax liability
b. To aid management in cash-flow analysis
c. To match the costs of production with revenues as earned
d. To adhere to the accounting constraint of conservatism


15. Pappy Corporation received cash of $13,500 on September 1, 2007 for one year's rent in advance and recorded the transaction with a credit to Unearned Rent. The December 31, 2007 adjusting entry is
a. debit Rent Revenue and credit Unearned Rent, $4,500.
b. debit Rent Revenue and credit Unearned Rent, $9,000.
c. debit Unearned Rent and credit Rent Revenue, $4,500.
d. debit Cash and credit Unearned Rent, $9,000.

16. Jim Yount, M.D., keeps his accounting records on the cash basis. During 2007, Dr. Yount collected $360,000 from his patients. At December 31, 2006, Dr. Yount had accounts receivable of $50,000. At December 31, 2007, Dr. Yount had accounts receivable of $70,000 and unearned revenue of $10,000. On the accrual basis, how much was Dr. Yount's patient service revenue for 2007?
a. $310,000.
b. $370,000.
c. $380,000.
d. $390,000.


17. On September 1, 2006, Lowe Co. issued a note payable to National Bank in the amount of $600,000, bearing interest at 12%, and payable in three equal annual principal payments of $200,000. On this date, the bank's prime rate was 11%. The first payment for interest and principal was made on September 1, 2007. At December 31, 2007, Lowe should record accrued interest payable of
a. $24,000.
b. $22,000.
c. $16,000.
d. $14,667.

18. Colaw Co. pays all salaried employees on a biweekly basis. Overtime pay, however, is paid in the next biweekly period. Colaw accrues salaries expense only at its December 31 year end. Data relating to salaries earned in December 2007 are as follows:
Last payroll was paid on 12/26/07, for the 2-week period ended 12/26/07.
Overtime pay earned in the 2-week period ended 12/26/07 was $10,000.
Remaining work days in 2007 were December 29, 30, 31, on which days there was no overtime.
The recurring biweekly salaries total $180,000.
Assuming a five-day work week, Colaw should record a liability at December 31, 2007 for accrued salaries of
a. $54,000.
b. $64,000.
c. $108,000.
d. $118,000.

Acct Pronouncements: Match the description to the pronouncement

1________Staff Positions

2________Interpretations (of the financial accounting standards Board)

3________ Statement of financial acct standards

4________EITE statments

5________Opinions

6________Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts

a. Offical Pronouncement of the APB

b. Sethforth fundamental objecftives and concepts that will be used in developing future standards.

c. Primary document of the FASB tht establishes GAAP

d. Provides aditional guidance on implementing or applying FASB standared or Interpretations

e. Provides guidance on how to account for new and unusual financial transactions tht have the potential for creating deversity in financial reporting practices.

f. Represent extensions of modifications of existing standards.

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create a class called Vehicle that contains fields for the vehicle's maximum speed and number of wheels. provide both a default constructor

1. create a class called Vehicle that contains fields for the vehicle's maximum speed and number of wheels. provide both a default constructor and

2 argument constructor. provide accessor (get) and mutator (set) methods for the fields. (Solution: vehicle.java) 2. create a subclass of Vehicle called Bicycle that contains a field for the number of gears on the bike. all bikes should have 2 wheels. (Solution: Bicycle.java)

3. add a 'toString ()' method to both classes. Have Bicycle's toString() use Vehicle's toString().

4. write an application that creates a Vehicle with 3 wheels and a top speed of 45 mph (like an ATV) and a Bicycle with 10 gears and a top speed of 30 mph. display both objects. (Solutions:Vehicle.java, Bicycle.java, VehicleTest.java)

5. declare an arry of 3 Vehicles. Make the first two elements Bicycle objects: a 10-speed and a 3-speed. Make the third element just a Vehicle object.

6. Write a loop that runs through the arry, printing each object. Which toString() method is called each time? (Solution: VehicleArray.java)

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Research a failure that occurred at a large organization such as Tyco, Chrysler/Daimler-Benz, Daewoo, WorldCom, or Enron

Research a failure that occurred at a large organization such as Tyco, Chrysler/Daimler-Benz, Daewoo, WorldCom, or Enron. In an APA formatted paper that is no longer than 1,050 words, describe how specific organizational behavior theories could have predicted or can explain the failure of the company. Compare and contrast the contributions of leadership, management, and organizational structures to the organizational failure.

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Kelly pitney began her consulting business, Kelly Consulting, on April 1, 2010. The accounting cylcle for Kelly Consulting for April

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Kelly pitney began her consulting business, Kelly Consulting, on April 1, 2010. The accounting cylcle for Kelly Consulting for April , including financial statements was illistrated on page 157-168. During May, kelly consulting entered the following transactions:

May 3. Received cash from clients as an advance payment for services to be provided and recorded it as unearned fees, $2,500.

5. Received cash from clients on account, $1,750.

9. Paid cash for a newspaper advertisement, $300.

13. Paid office station company for part of the debt incurred on april 5, $400.

15. Recorded services provided on account for the period May 1-15, $6,100.

16. paid part-time receptionist for two weeks' salary including the amount owed on April 30, $750.

17. Recorded cash from cash clients for fees earned during the period May 1-16, $8,200.

20. Purchased supplies on account, $400

21. Recorded services provided on account for the period May 16-20, $3,900.

25. Recorded cash from cash clients for fees earned for the period May 17-23, $5,100.

27. Recieved cash from clients on account, $9,500.

28. Paid part-time receptionist for two weeks salary, $750.

30. Paid telephone bill for May, $120.

31. Paid electricity bill for May $290.

31. Recorded cash from cash clients for fees earned for the period May 26-31, $3,875.

31. Recorded services provided on account for the remainder of May, $3,200.

31. Kelly withdrew $8,000 for personal use.

Pg. 158 Chart of Accounts:

April 1. The following assets were recieved from Kelly Pitney: Cash, $13,100; Accounts receivable, $3,000; Supplies, $1,400; and office equipment, $12,500. there were no liabilities recieved.

1. Paid three months rent on a lease rental contract, $4,800.

2. Paid the premiums on property and casualty insurance policies, $1,800.

4. Recieved cash from clients as an advance payment for services to be provided and recorded it as unearned fees, $5,000.

5. Purchased additional office equipment on account from Office Station Co., $2,000.

6. Recieved cash from clients on account, $1,800.

10. Paid cash for a newspaper advertisement, $120.

12. paid Office Station Co. for part of the debt incurred on April 5, $1,200.

12. Recorded services provided on account for the period April 1-12, $4,200.

14. Paid part-time receptionist for two weeks' salary, $750.

17. Recorded cash from cash clients for fees earned during the period April 1-16, $6,250.

18. Paid cash for supplies, $800.

20. Recorded services provided on account for the period April 13-20, $2,100.

24. Recorded cash from cash clients for fees earned for the period April 17-24, $3,850.

26. Recieved cash from clients on account, $5,600.

27. Paid part-time receptionist for two weeks' salary, $750.

29. Paid telephone bill for April, $130.

30. paid electricity bill for April, $200.

30. Recorded cash from clients for fees earned for the period April 25-30, $3,050.

30. Recorded services provided on account for the remainder of April, $1,500.

30. kelly withdrew $6,000 for personal use.

Pg. 166 Post-closing trial balance

Debit Credit

cash................................22,100

Accounts receivable.......3,400

Supplies...........................1,350

Prepaid rent......................3,200

Prepaid insurance.............1,500

office equipment...............14,500

Accumualted depreciation.. 330

Accounts payable.............. 800

Salaries Payable.............. 120

Unearned Fees................ 2,500

kelly pitney, Capital.......... 42,300

46,050 46,050

Instructions:

1. The chart of accounts for Kelly Consulting is shown on page 158, and the post-closing trail balance as of April 30, 2010 is shown on page 166. For each account in the post-closing trial balance, enter the balance in the appropriate balance column of a four column account. Date the balances May 1, 2010, and place a check mark in the posting referece column. Journalize each of the May transactions in a two column journal using Kelly Consulting's chart of accounts. (do not insert the account numbers in the journal at this time.)

2. Post the journal to a ledger of four-column accounts.

3. Prepare an unadjusted trail balance

4. At the end of May, the following adjustment data were assembled. Analyze and use these data to complete parts 5 and 6.

a. Insurance expired during May is $300.

b. Supplies on hand on May 31 are $600.

c. Depreciation of office equipment for May is $330.

d. Accrued receptionist salary on May 31 is $240.

e. Rent expired during May is $1,600.

f. Unearned fees on May 31 are $2,000

5. Enter the unadjusted trial balance on an end-of-period spreadsheet (worksheet) and complete the spreadsheet.

6. Journalize and post the adjusting entries.

7.Prepare an adjusted trial balance.

8. Prepare an income statement, a statement of owner's equity, and a balance sheet.

9. Prepare and post the closing entries. (Income summary is account #33 in the chart of accounts.) Indicate closed accounts by inserting a line in both the Balance columns opposite the closing entry.

10. Prepare a post-closing trial balance

Book Used:

Elementary Accounting: Custom for badm 101

by Carl S. Warren/James M. Reeve/ Jonathan E. Duchac.

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Lot many men have a stressful state generally known as manboobs or moobs and technically known as gynecomastia. Society has never accepted and always made fun of people having this so-called disorder. I dont really consider this as a disorder but just an hormonal imbalance which only affects the size of mammary glands in men.

There are many exercises to decrease this manboobs or moobs (man boobs) or gynecomastia, but are rarely effective and
the surgery is usually out of reach of many men. Even after surgery the moobs, also known as manboobs or the state
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On other hand Gynexin alpha formula pills has been highly effective as male breast reduction product. This pill is as
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state of gynecomastia is very common as it is estimated that 33 percent of men will be diagonized with gynecomastia during their lifetime. As most men with gynecomastia could be treated without the surgery, I would high recommend using Gynexin pills to get rid of man boobs

Geography 101 multiple question quiz

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Question 1 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) One of the worlds’ most heavily populated agricultural areas is known as: A. Xizang B. Chang-Yangzi Basin C. Xinjiang D. Shazam E. North China Plain --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 2 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The better watered volcanic islands where the economy is based upon agriculture are known as: A. high islands B. low islands C. Melanesia islands D. Micronesia islands E. Polynesia islands

Question 3 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The ___________ Revolution of the 1960s introduced “miracle” varieties of wheat and rice that significantly increased the productivity of these crops. A. Communist B. Green C. Agricultural D. Malthusian E. Gandhian

Question 4 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Bangladesh was formerly known as: A. East Pakistan B. West Pakistan C. Ceylon D. Nepal E. Burma

Question 5 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The caste system is most associated with which of the following religious group? A. Rastafarian B. Muslim C. Buddhist D. Hindu E. Christian

Question 6 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The people of New Guinea are: A. mostly Chinese B. Hindus C. Indonesian in their ancestry D. of Portuguese descent E. Papuans

Question 7 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The island of New Guinea is included in the region known as: A. Melanesia B. Micronesia C. Polynesia D. Fiji E. Indonesia

Question 8 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The city located closest to the Ganges Delta is: A. Calcutta (Kolkata) B. New Delhi C. Madras (Chennai) D. Islamabad E. Colombo

Question 9 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following oil producers does not border the Persian Gulf? A. Libya B. Kuwait C. Iran D. Saudi Arabia E. Oman

Question 10 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The main river serving the hinterland of Shanghai is the: A. Xi (West)/Pearl River B. Huang He (Yellow River) C. Chang-Yangzi River D. Irawaddy River E. Songhua

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Question 11 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The partitioning of Hindu India from Muslim Pakistan occurred in: A. ca. 460 B.C. B. 1857 C. 1947 D. 1971 E. the two areas have never been partitioned

Question 12 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) . The Gobi is associated with which region? A. North China B. Northeast China C. Inner Mongolia D. Xinjiang E. Xizang

Question 13 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following is false about New Caledonia? A. It has significant nickel resources. B. It was under British rule. C. It is inhabited by only about 240,000 persons. D. It consists of about 80 islands. E. About 37% of the population is of French origin.

Question 14 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following cities suffered severely in the devastating 1991 cyclone that came ashore north of the Bay of Bengal? A. New Delhi B. Bombay (Mumbai) C. Dhaka D. Karachi E. Beijing

Question 15 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Pacific region called ___________ takes its name from the word for many, and is contained within a huge triangle whose corners are New Zealand, Easter Island, and the Hawaiian Islands. A. Polynesia B. Amnesia C. Micronesia D. Melanesia E. Oceania

Question 16 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) . The Grand Canal connects: A. the Xi (West)/Pearl River and the Chang-Yangzi River B. the Chang-Yangzi River and the core of Northern China C. the Liao and the Amur D. the Indus and the Ganges E. the Liao and the Ob

Question 17 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following statements is false? A. The first Temple of the Jews was destroyed by the Babylonians in 586 B.C. B. The second Temple of the Jews was destroyed by the Romans in 70 A.D. C. Christianity began as a messianic religion under the Romans D. The United Nations gave Jerusalem to the Israelis under the 1947 partition resolution E. The Palestinians and the Israelis both desire Jerusalem as their capital.

Question 18 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Your textbook indicates that a newly developing regional disparity in India is between: A. urban and rural areas B. east and west C. north and south D. coastal and interior E. none of the above

Question 19 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Centrifugal forces: A. tend to pull a state together, unifying it and increasing its cohesion b. determine the effectiveness with which the boundary system functions to control the population C. affect the binding function of the capital city D. have the effect of dividing a state, promoting disunity and internal fragmentation E. pull a state from representative to authoritarian forms of government

Question 20 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Egypt’s peasant farmers are known as: A. Shatt-al-Arabs B. fellaheen C. Shi’ites D. mestizos E. Bedouins

Question 21 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following is located in Micronesia? A. Hawaiian Islands B. Marshall Islands C. New Caledonia D. Solomon Islands E. Papua New Guinea

Question 22 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The majority population in the north of Kazakhstan is: A. Kazakhstan B. Russian C. Uzbek D. Armenian E. Ukrainian

Question 23 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The largest oil reserves in the Middle East are in: A. Israel B. Libya C. Iraq D. Saudi Arabia E. Yemen

Question 24 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The emerging economic region of China is: A. Shandong B. Shenzhen C. the Pacific Rim D. Hainan Island E. Hong Kong (Xianggang)

Question 25 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The priestly caste in India is known as the: A. Hindus B. Brahmans C. Harijans D. Sikhs E. none of the above

Question 26 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) This country is the smallest in North Africa, but has the highest GNP per capita in North Africa. A. Chad B. Algeria C. Tunisia D. Morocco E. Libya

Question 27 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The island off the south coast of Australia is known as: A. Tasmania B. Canberra C. Sydney D. New Guinea E. Christmas Island

Question 28 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which association is incorrect? A. Myanmar, Irrawaddy B. Thailand, Chao Phraya C. Liao, Laos D. Mekong, southern Vietnam E. Red, northern Vietnam

Question 29 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Empire that ruled over much of Southwest Asia prior to World War I was: A. Ottoman B. Persian C. Byzantine D. Crusader Kingdom E. Maghreb Empire

Question 30 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) . Which of the following countries is not on the Arabian Peninsula? A. Libya B. Kuwait C. Oman D. Qatar E. Bahrain

Question 31 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Mao Zedong’s proclamation creating the communist People’s Republic of China was announced in: A. 1911 B. 1925 C. 1949 D. 1976 E. 1983

Question 32 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The most important ethnic group in Afghanistan is the: A. Pushtuns (Pathans) B. Turkmen C. Azeris D. Kurds E. Baluchis

Question 33 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The largest country in Melanesia by area is: A. Solomon Islands Island B. Fiji C. Papua New Guinea D. Hawai’i E. Easter

Question 34 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) In India, a leading centrifugal force is: A. the caste system B. cultural strength of Hinduism C. the personality of Nehru D. the Sikh population E. none of the above

Question 35 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which state is located in southern India? A. Assam B. Tamil Nadu C. Punjab D. Kashmir E. Tibet

Question 36 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Much of India’s coal supply is found in the: A. Assam region B. Chota-Nagpur Plateau C. Western Ghats D. Kathiawar Peninsula E. Kashmir province

Question 37 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The small group of islands 400 miles south of India are the: A. Sri Lanka B. Punjabs C. Maldives D. Dravidians E. Colombos

Question 38 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) In Iraq, the Shi’ite population is concentrated in: A. the north B. the capital C. the border area near Jordan D. the south E. the Kurdish area

Question 39 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following colonial associations is incorrect? A. Spain, Philippines B. France, Sumatera (Sumatra) C. Dutch, Indonesia D. France, Vietnam E. Timor, Portugal

Question 40 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following statements about Nepal is false? A. Deforestation is a problem. B. Agriculture is a true success story. C. The Himalayas are the principal physical feature. D. About 80% of the population are Hindu. E. Kathmandu is the country's core area.

Question 41 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following statements is false? A. Though the official language of Bangladesh is Bengali, the official language of Pakistan is Urdu. B. While the major natural hazard faced by Bangladesh is flooding, the major natural hazard faced by Pakistan is drought. C. While rice is the major staple grain in Bangladesh, wheat is the major staple grain in Pakistan. D. Bangladesh and Pakistan have significant known mineral resources. E. Bangladesh and Pakistan were once united into a single country.

Question 42 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following regions is often called “Manchuria” by uninformed foreigners? A. Northeast China B. Taiwan C. North China Plain D. Xizang E. Red Basin of Sichuan

Question 43 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which country maintains the largest land claim in Antarctica? A. United States B. Australia C. New Zealand D. Japan E. France

Question 44 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The first true indigenous empire in India was the: A. Aryan B. Indus C. Dravidian D. Buddha E. Mauryan

Question 45 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Xizang: A. is the Chinese name for Tibet B. is Buddhist C. has suffered from the destruction of its culture by the Chinese D. has its capital at Lhasa E. all of the above

Question 46 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Native Australians are known as: A. Maoris B. Cook Islanders C. Aborigines D. Indians E. Guineans

Question 47 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following cities is located in Pakistan’s Sind region? A. Karachi B. Kabul C. Islamabad D. Lahore E. Rawalpindi

Question 48 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The untouchable caste in India is known as the: A. Hindus B. Harijans C. Brahmans D. Sikhs E. none of the above

Question 49 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The rural areas of Australia are known as the: A. backward zone B. outlands C. aboriginal territories D. Northern Territory E. outback

Question 50 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following are not Chinese areas encouraging foreign investment? A. special economic zones B. open coastal areas C. open cities D. forbidden cities E. Shenzhen

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Question 51 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The body of water destroyed by Soviet irrigation schemes is the: A. Black Sea B. Aral Sea C. Caspian Sea D. Lake Balkhash E. Sea of Azov

Question 52 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following countries does not share a common border with Pakistan? A. Iran B. China C. Bangladesh D. Afghanistan E. India

Question 53 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The shortest of the three great rivers in China is the: A. Huang He (Yellow River) B. Chiang River C. Xi (West)/Pearl River D. Liao River E. Indus River

Question 54 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) China’s current population is closest to: A. 700 million B. 800 million C. 1.6 billion D. 500 million E. 1.3 billion

Question 55 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Ceuta and Mellila are associated with which country? A. Egypt B. Tunisia C. Persia D. Morocco E. Spanish Sahara

Question 56 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The UAE includes the oil-rich sheikhdom known as: A. Kuwait B. Saudi C. Abu Dhabi D. Bahrain E. Qatar

Question 57 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following republics of Turkestan has a people of Persian origin? A. Kazakhstan B. Uzbekistan C. Turkmenistan D. Tajikistan E. Kyrgyzstan

Question 58 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The city of __________ is located at the confluence of the White and Blue Nile and serves as the capital of __________. A. Khartoum/Sudan B. Addis Ababa/Ethiopia C. Cairo/Egypt D. Kabol/Afghanistan E. Baghdad/Iraq

Question 59 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Between Yemen and Djibouti is the choke point known as: A. Hormuz B. Tiran C. Bab el Mandeb D. Suez E. Gibraltar

Question 60 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Sikh population is concentrated in: A. Punjab B. Assam C. Kerala D. Kashmir E. Seekland

Question 61 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The modern state of Israel was created in: A. 1923 B. 1937 C. 1948 D. 1959 E. 1967

Question 62 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Prior to independence, New Guinea was administered by: A. Australia B. New Zealand C. U.S. D. Indonesia E. Papua

Question 63 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) 8 of the 10 costliest natural disasters in the world have struck which of the following countries? A. India B. Bangladesh C. Pakistan D. Sri Lanka E. Nepal

Question 64 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following is not one of the republics of Turkestan? A. Kazakhstan B. Uzbekistan C. Turkmenistan D. Azerbaijan E. Kyrgyzstan

Question 65 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following is the core area of Pakistan? A. Punjab B. Sind C. Assam D. Islamabad E. Baluchistan

Question 66 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following was not a part of French Indochina? A. Tonkin B. Siam C. Cambodia D. Laos E. Vietnam

Question 67 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The State of Israel: A. was settled by people fleeing the Zionist policies of Nazi Germany B. was created from territory that was formerly administered by the British C. was part of the Ottoman Empire and ceded to the Israelis in 1923 D. was created out of the country of Palestine that previously had no Jewish population E. was founded after World War I

Question 68 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The North China Plain is dominated by the: A. Huang He (Yellow River) B. Himalayas C. Chang-Yangzi River D. Xizang E. Ordos Desert

Question 69 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Kemal Atatürk is most closely identified with the city of: A. Cairo B. Mecca C. Tehran D. Ankara E. Baghdad

Question 70 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Wallace’s Line refers to: A. the point in Australia where earthquakes are particularly severe B. the line separating Australian species from non-Australian species C. the midpoint of the Great Dividing Range D. the point at which Australian waters are divided from New Zealand waters E. the dividing line between the aboriginal and modern Australian territories

Question 71 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following is not located within the Maghreb region? A. the Atlas Mountains B. Casablanca C. the countries that were once called the Barbary states d. the Mecca area of the Arabian Peninsula D. the city of Tunis

Question 72 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The leader who took over in China following Mao was: A. Deng Xiaoping B. Mao’s son C. Chiang Kai-Shek D. Sun Yat-sen E. Zhou Enlai

Question 73 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Iran differs from most of the North African/Southwest Asian realm in that: A. it is non-Islamic B. its population is nearly 100% Arab C. it is dominantly Shi’ite D. it is ruled by a monarchy E. as a nation it is very young

Question 74 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Han Dynasty: A. is the earliest Chinese dynasty about which substantial information is available B. began and ended before 300 B.C., when China already was a well-organized state C. was a pivotal and formative period in Chinese history, when the Chinese sphere of influence was enlarged, land reform occurred, and external trade commenced D. was a period of division and disarray, causing the emergence of two rival capitals, Tianjin and Beijing E. led directly to the takeover of the Manchus

Question 75 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) A boundary is actually marked on the ground during the stage called: A. administration B. allocation (definition) C. delimitation D. demarcation E. antecedence

Question 76 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) _______ held onto eastern Timor well after the Dutch left the East Indies. A. Portugal B. Spain C. U.S. D. British E. Japanese

Question 77 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The dominant centripetal force in India has been the: A. cultural and religious strength of Hinduism B. universality of the English Language C. united opposition to Islam D. national effort against the colonial power E. war on hunger and malnutrition

Question 78 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) About ___ % of Australians live in cities or towns. A. 20 B. 40 C. 85 D. 10 E. 12

Question 79 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The lava covered plateau that extends across most of southern India is known as the: A. Punjab B. Bengla C. Dravidian D. Deccan E. Raj

Question 80 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following is not located in Pakistan? A. Deccan Plateau B. Sind C. Punjab D. Islamabad E. Baluchistan

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Question 81 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Hawaiian Islands are included in: A. Melanesia B. Micronesia C. Polynesia D. Fiji E. Indonesia

Question 82 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which region contains Tibet? A. South China B. Inner Mongolia C. Xinjiang D. Xizang E. Northeast China

Question 83 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) A territorial sea is: A. an area of the ocean where all of the rights of a coastal state prevail B. a body of water completely surrounded by a state C. a small body of water that connects to larger bodies of water D. only found in the Southern Ocean E. an area where a state has no rights to exploit minerals

Question 84 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The animals found in Australia who carry their young in pouches are collectively known as: A. Marsupials B. Kangaroos C. Platypuses D. Maoris E. Tasmanians

Question 85 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Hindu population of Sri Lanka is called the: A. Ceylonese B. Sinhalese C. Tamils D. Ghats E. Lankanese

Question 86 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following has not been important in the development of Shenzhen as an SEZ? A. proximity to Hong Kong (Xianggang) B. the socialist economic principles applied by the Chinese government to its development C. port facilities D. investment of overseas Chinese in its development E. U.S. and Japanese investments

Question 87 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following areas of India is located in the Brahmaputra Valley? A. Deccan B. Assam C. Punjab D. Kashmir E. Tibet

Question 88 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The periphery of the Deccan plateau is marked by mountain ranges called: A. Punjabs B. Ghats C. Himalayas D. Karakoram E. Hindu Kush

Question 89 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Two political entities that recently reunited with China are: A. Vietnam and Shandong B. Macau (Macao) and Shenzhen C. Hong Kong (Xianggang) and Shenzhen D. Hong Kong and Xianggang E. Macau (Macao) and Hong Kong (Xianggang)

Question 90 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The power coming through India in the tenth century was: A. Roman B. Greek C. Islam D. Buddhist E. Aryan

Question 91 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Syrians have lost which piece of territory to the Israelis? A. Lebanon B. Bratislava C. Palestine D. Golan E. Kurdistan

Question 92 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following statements about Indian agriculture is false? A. Rice is grown in the east and wheat in the west. B. Wheat is grown in the east and rice in the west. C. The Green Revolution led to significant increases in production. D. Cotton is produced in west-central India. E. All of the above are false.

Question 93 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Which of the following statements is false? A. Australia’s total population is modest in size. B. The largest core area of Australia is on the southeastern coast. C. Most Australians live in rural areas. D. Much of Australia is arid or semi-arid. E. The capital of Australia is Canberra.

Question 94 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The country that could control the flow of the Nile River into Egypt is: A. Iraq B. Sudan C. Libya D. Turkey E. none of the above

Question 95 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The Huang He (Yellow River): A. drains the Xi (West)/Pearl River Basin B. flows into the South China Sea C. almost encircles one of China’s driest areas, the Ordos Desert D. flows from the Loess Plateau eastward toward the East China Sea south of Shanghai E. originates in the Tarim Basin

Question 96 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The North Africa/Southwest Asia realm contains about __________ % of the world’s oil reserves. A. 10 B. 95 C. 77 D. 30 E. 3

Question 97 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The two major cities on the North China Plain are: A. Beijing and Shanghai B. Beijing and Tianjin C. Shandong and Tibet D. Hainan and Hong Kong (Xianggang) E. Singapore and Shenyang

Question 98 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) Powdery wind-blown soil pulverized by glaciers is called: A. ordos B. loess C. cenozoic D. shandong E. huang soil

Question 99 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) The irredentist movement in the North West Frontier of Pakistan is based on cultural affiliations with the neighboring country of: A. Iran B. Afghanistan C. Jammu and Kashmir D. Bangladesh E. India

Question 100 (Multiple Choice Worth 1 points) An area whose control is still disputed by India and Pakistan is: A. Punjab B. Jammu and Kashmir C. Bangladesh D. Bengal E. Goa

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