MGT 307 FINAL EXAM ANSWERED 2 SETS
1) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics.
A. workgroup analysis.
B. motivation.
C. organizational behavior.
D. performance management.
2) Scientific methods models link _________________ - presumed causes, with _________________ - outcomes, of practical value and interest.
A. discovered variables, with undisclosed variables.
B. specific variables, contingency variables.
C. independent variables, dependent variables.
D. proven variables, non-proven variables.
3) Organizational behavior goals include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. improve the level of organizational profits.
B. improve the performance of organizations.
C. improve the performance of people.
D. improve the quality of overall work life.
4) Which of the following statements about the management of organizational culture is NOT correct?
A. dictate rules from the top of the organization.
B. corporate culture can be managed by directly modifying the observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions that deal with issues of external adaptation.
C. good managers are able to help build resilient cultures in situations where the features of strong cultures are absent.
D. corporate culture can be managed by using organizational development techniques to modify specific elements of the culture that address both external adaptation and internal integration.
5) The __________ culture includes the unique stories, ceremonies, and corporate rituals that make up the history of the firm or a group within it.
A. observable
B. shared
C. latent
D. common
6) Organizations are encouraged to develop a dominant and coherent set of __________. Although every member may not agree with them, all members will know they are important.
A. shared values
B. implicit needs
C. observable attitudes
D. common perceptions
7) A person who is a __________ assumes a unique responsibility for work that is accomplished largely through the efforts of other people.
A. manager or team leader
B. human resources director
C. team member
D. change agent
8) According to the research conducted on the nature of managerial work, which of the following is false?
A. managers work with many communication media.
B. managers work long hours.
C. managers work at fragmented and varied tasks.
D. managers spend much time working alone.
9) Henry Mintzberg identified a set of roles that managers perform. These roles are grouped into which of the following three categories?
A. supervisory, authoritarian, and decisional.
B. strategic, informational, and political.
C. interpersonal, strategic, and decisional.
D. interpersonal, informational, and decisional.
10) There are six sources of noise that are common to most interpersonal exchanges. These six sources are __________.
A. tangible distractions, people problems, inconsistent messages, cultural differences, absence of prior planning, and absence of feedback.
B. cultural differences, physical distractions, semantic problems, mixed messages, absence of feedback, and status effects.
C. semantic problems, proximity problems, mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of planning, and status effects.
D. mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of feedback, proximity problems, absence of commitment to effective communication, and status effects.
11) ________ is often accompanied by an unwillingness to understand alternative points of view and to take the values they represent seriously.
A. Kinesics
B. Ethnocentrism
C. Proxemics
D. Self importance
12) Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT correct?
A. Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures.
B. Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word.
C. In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis on the “context” in which the words are spoken.
D. In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or interpreted from the context, which includes body language, the physical setting and past relationships.
13) A high-performing team can be created by doing the all of the following EXCEPT:
A. making sure members have the right skills.
B. communicating high-performance standards.
C. creating a sense of urgency.
D. ensuring that new information is kept to a minimum.
14) Members of __________ must have good long-term working relationships with one another, solid operating systems, and the external support needed to achieve effectiveness over a sustained period of time.
A. teams that make or do things.
B. teams that plan things.
C. teams that reengineer things.
D. teams that review things.
15) Each of the following is a characteristic of high-performance teams EXCEPT:
A. high-performance teams have members who focus on individual effort and excellence.
B. high-performance teams have strong core values.
C. high-performance teams turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives.
D. members of high-performance teams have the right mix of skills.
16) The conflict management style of __________involves being cooperative and unassertive. This style is characterized by letting the wishes of others rule, and smoothing over or overlooking differences to maintain harmony.
A. completion
B. avoidance
C. accommodation
D. collaboration
17) Whenever he is involved in a disagreement, Harry tries to partially satisfy both his concerns and the other party’s concerns through bargaining and appropriate trade-offs. Harry uses which conflict management style?
A. compromise
B. avoidance
C. accommodation
D. collaboration
18) The conflict management style of __________ involves being both cooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by trying to fully satisfy everyone’s concerns by working through differences and finding and solving problems so that everyone gains.
A. compromise
B. avoidance
C. accommodation
D. collaboration
19) Process theories focus on _________________.
A. when a person will react to specific management styles.
B. how a person will respond to types of leadership direction.
C. why a person decides to behave in a certain way relative to available rewards and work opportunities.
D. who will be a more appropriate manager for an employee.
20) In the context of motivation, level refers to __________.
A. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.
B. the length of time a person sticks with a given action.
C. the amount of effort a person puts forth.
D. the consequences of an individual’s behavior.
21) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.
A. perceptions on-the-job.
B. the relationship between values and attitudes.
C. the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.
D. pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.
22) Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues, they are also likely to develop enhanced performance potential once things are worked out.
A. True
B. False
23) Unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great advantages of high-performance organizations.
A. True
B. False
24) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or stage of development.
A. True
B. False
25) Job burnout manifests itself as a loss of interest in and satisfaction with a job due to stressful working conditions.
A. True
B. False
26) Stress is a state of tension experienced by individuals facing extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities.
A. True
B. False
27) Stress is a potential source of both anxiety and frustration, which can harm the body’s physiological and psychological well-being over time.
A. True
B. False
28) Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people __________.
A. are willing to use coercive power to gain influence.
B. learn from personal failures.
C. obey the commands of an authority figure.
D. are willing to learn new things as a means of gaining expert powe
29) Which of the following statements about power and organizational politics is NOT correct?
A. power and politics always exist in organizations.
B. power and politics represent the seamy side of management, since organizations are not democracies composed of individuals with equal influence.
C. managers derive their power from personal and organizational sources.
D. few instances exist where individual and organizational interests are compatible.
30) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments?
A. the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points.
B. the basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.
C. Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person.
D. experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs
31) A high-performing team can be created by ensuring that new information is kept to a minimum and by giving negative feedback.
A. True
B. False
32) A high-performing team can be created by communicating high-performance standards, having members spend time together, creating a sense of urgency, making sure members have the right skills, and rewarding high performance.
A. True
B. False
33) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s purpose.
A. True
B. False
34) Often self-leadership activities are divided into these three broad categories:
A. focus, ambiguous and unfocused strategies.
B. bottom-up, top-down and middle strategies.
C. behavior focused, natural reward and constructive thought pattern strategies.
D. cognitive, behavior and emotional strategies.
35) Behavior strategies include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. self accomplishment
B. self reward
C. self observation
D. self goal setting
36) All of the following statements about shared leaderships are correct EXCEPT:
A. leadership is restricted among a set of individuals who act in the role of a superior.
B. the key distinction between shared leadership and traditional models of leadership is that the influence process involves more than just downward influence on subordinates by an appointed or elective e leader.
C. leadership today is not restricted simply to the vertical influence of a single individual but to other people as well.
D. the influence process often involves peer or lateral influence.
37) One of the foremost trends in management involves using __________ to streamline operations and reduce staff in order to lower costs and raise productivity.
A. information technology
B. total quality management
C. reengineering techniques
D. just-in time inventory control
38) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more __________ form.
A. bureaucratic
B. centralized
C. mechanistic
D. organic
39) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the boiled frog phenomenon, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.
A. True
B. False
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1) From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has developed all of the following EXCEPT:
A. use of scientific methods.
B. contingency thinking.
C. an interdisciplinary body of knowledge.
D. an emphasis on finding the “one best way” to complete a task.
2) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics.
A. performance management.
B. workgroup analysis.
C. motivation.
D. organizational behavior.
3) Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary body of knowledge with strong ties to all of the following disciplines EXCEPT:
A. sociology.
B. anthropology.
C. physics.
D. psychology.
4) Organizations are encouraged to develop a dominant and coherent set of __________. Although every member may not agree with them, all members will know they are important.
A. common perceptions
B. shared values
C. implicit needs
D. observable attitudes
5) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are __________.
A. observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions.
B. explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions.
C. shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission.
D. implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences.
6) Managers can modify the __________ of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas.
A. verbal aspects
B. oral aspects
C. visible aspects
D. vocal aspects
7) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon.
A. False
B. True
8) Common forms of unintentional ethics lapses that individuals should guard against include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. favoring others who can benefit someone.
B. promoting people who excel in their respective positions.
C. claiming too much personal credit for one's performance contributions.
D. prejudice that derives from unconscious stereotypes and attitudes.
9) When it comes to ethics and morality, scholar Archie B. Carroll draws a distinction between __________.
A. immoral managers, amoral managers and ethical managers
B. amoral managers, ethical managers and moral managers
C. immoral managers, ethical managers and unethical managers
D. immoral managers, amoral managers and moral managers
10) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________.
A. geographic differences
B. lifestyle differences
C. language differences
D. religious differences
11) There are six sources of noise that are common to most interpersonal exchanges. These six sources are __________.
A. semantic problems, proximity problems, mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of planning, and status effects.
B. tangible distractions, people problems, inconsistent messages, cultural differences, absence of prior planning, and absence of feedback.
C. cultural differences, physical distractions, semantic problems, mixed messages, absence of feedback, and status effects.
D. mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of feedback, proximity problems, absence of commitment to effective communication, and status effects.
12) Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT correct?
A. Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word.
B. In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or interpreted from the context, which includes body language, the physical setting and past relationships.
C. In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis on the “context” in which the words are spoken.
D. Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures.
13) Members of __________ must have good long-term working relationships with one another, solid operating systems, and the external support needed to achieve effectiveness over a sustained period of time.
A. teams that plan things.
B. teams that review things.
C. teams that reengineer things.
D. teams that make or do things.
14) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives.
A. Teams that review things.
B. Teams that make or do things.
C. Teams that run things.
D. Teams that evaluate things.
15) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled.
A. Teams that recommend things.
B. Teams that review things.
C. Teams that run things.
D. Teams that study things.
16) Whenever he is involved in a disagreement, Harry tries to partially satisfy both his concerns and the other party's concerns through bargaining and appropriate trade-offs. Harry uses which conflict management style?
A. avoidance
B. collaboration
C. accommodation
D. compromise
17) Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She goes against the wishes of others and uses her authority to gain compliance. Sheila uses which conflict management style?
A. competition
B. compromise
C. collaboration
D. accommodation
18) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style?
A. avoidance
B. compromise
C. competition
D. accommodation
19) In the context of motivation, level refers to __________.
A. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.
B. the amount of effort a person puts forth.
C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action.
D. the consequences of an individual's behavior.
20) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.
A. perceptions on-the-job.
B. the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.
C. the relationship between values and attitudes.
D. pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.
21) In the context of motivation, persistence refers to __________.
A. an individual's choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives.
B. the amount of effort a person puts forth.
C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action.
D. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.
22) Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues, they are also likely to develop enhanced performance potential once things are worked out.
A. True
B. False
23) In general, chances for long-term group success are better when the group input foundations – tasks; goals, rewards, and resources; technology; membership diversity; and group size – are stronger.
A. True
B. False
24) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team's life or stage of development.
A. True
B. False
25) Eustress has a negative impact on both attitudes and performance.
A. True
B. False
26) Wellness involves maintaining physical and mental health to better deal with stress when it occurs.
A. True
B. False
27) Stress is a state of tension experienced by individuals facing extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities.
A. True
B. False
28) Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people __________.
A. are willing to use coercive power to gain influence.
B. obey the commands of an authority figure.
C. learn from personal failures.
D. are willing to learn new things as a means of gaining expert power.
29) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram's experiments?
A. the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points.
B. experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs
C. Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person.
D. the basic conclusion of Milgram's studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.
30) Which of the following statements about power and organizational politics is NOT correct?
A. power and politics always exist in organizations.
B. managers derive their power from personal and organizational sources.
C. power and politics represent the seamy side of management, since organizations are not democracies composed of individuals with equal influence.
D. few instances exist where individual and organizational interests are compatible.
31) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team's purpose.
A. True
B. False
32) High-performance teams have special characteristics that allow them to excel at teamwork and achieve special performance advantages.
A. True
B. False
33) A high-performing team can be created by finding ways to create early successes, establishing clear rules for team behavior, setting the tone in the first team meeting, and, as a leader, modeling expected behaviors.
A. True
B. False
34) _________________ is often used in combination with vertical leadership.
A. shared leadership
B. organizational goal setting
C. power negotiation
D. individual leadership
35) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true EXCEPT:
A. C. FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by organizations.
B. B. the approach is built around revisions to Bass' Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire.
C. A. the theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational, three transactional one non-transactional factor.
D. D. some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general leadership model that would trim or eliminate the numerous models now emphasized today.
36) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are:
A. charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven.
B. autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented.
C. self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented.
D. implicit, explicit, specific, detailed.
37) The __________ and the __________ are important ways in which firms learn to co-evolve by altering their environments.
A. management of networks… influence of governments
B. use of corporate philanthropy… influence of governments
C. management of networks…development of alliances
D. influence of governments…development of alliances
38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.
A. impatience trap
B. boiled frog phenomenon
C. proactive phenomenon
D. immobility trap
39) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more __________ form.
A. mechanistic
B. bureaucratic
C. centralized
D. organic
MGT 307 FINAL EXAM ANSWERED 2 SETS
MGT 307 FINAL EXAM
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